NCLEX-RN : Conditions and Treatments

Study concepts, example questions & explanations for NCLEX-RN

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Example Questions

Example Question #1042 : Nclex

You are the nurse taking care of a 76-year old female who complains of vaginal dryness that is occasionally painful during intercourse. She is diagnosed with vulvovaginal atrophy. Which of the following is the best initial treatment?

Possible Answers:

Topical estrogen

Diphenhydramine

Oxybutinin

Systemic estrogen

Propranolol

Correct answer:

Topical estrogen

Explanation:

The correct answer is "Topical estrogen." 

In a patient with atrophic vulvovaginitis, a condition that causes thinning of the vaginal and vulvar tissue, resulting in inflammation, diminished lubrication, and subsequent pain, the best initial treatment option if the condition is distressing to the patient is application of topical estrogen. Atrophic vulvovaginitis is a common condition in post-menopausal women as the level of circulating estrogen decreases, and therefore estrogen-mediated effects on female tissues are diminished. With the significant decrease in estrogen to the vagina and vulva, inflammatory and painful symptoms may occur, as in this patient. By applying a topical estrogen cream to the affected tissues, this allows the patient to supplement the estrogen that was lost following menopause, while not exposing the patient to the potentially negative effects (e.g. cardiovascular) of systemic estrogen supplementation.

Propranolol is a beta-adrenergic antagonist and has no role in the treatment of atrophic vulvovaginitis. 

Oxybutinin is an anti-cholinergic medication that is used to treat spastic bladder, among other conditions. It has no role in the treatment of atrophic vulvovaginitis. 

Diphenhydramine is an anti-histamine medication that has a wide variety of uses, but none known to treat atrophic vulvovaginitis.

Example Question #1041 : Nclex

You are the nurse taking care of a 28-year old G3P2 who is at 33 weeks gestation. She goes into labor, and the physician orders administration of a tocolytic medication. Which of the following medications is a tocolytic?

Possible Answers:

Furosemide

Sertraline

Lisinopril

Terbinafine

Terbutaline

Correct answer:

Terbutaline

Explanation:

The correct answer is "Terbutaline." This is the correct answer, as terbutaline, a beta-2-adrenergic agonist, is the only medication listed that has tocolytic, or labor-repressing (anti-contraction) properties. It is one of the most common medications used for tocolysis in pregnant women. Another commonly used tocolytic agent is nifedipine, a calcium-channel blocker.

The other choices are incorrect. Lisinopril is an angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor (ACE-I) that is commonly used to treat hypertension, among other conditions. It has no reported use as a tocolytic. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that is commonly used in the treatment of hypertension. It has no reported tocolytic properties. Sertraline is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor medication used to treat a number of conditions including major depressive disorder and generalized anxiety disorder, among others. Terbinafine is an allylamine anti-fungal medication used to treat conditions such as tinea corporis or tinea cruris. 

Example Question #1042 : Nclex

Basal body temperature is determined by __________.

Possible Answers:

taking the temperature in the evening

taking the temperature before rising

taking the temperature mid-morning

taking the temperature before bed

taking the temperature in the afternoon

Correct answer:

taking the temperature before rising

Explanation:

The basal body temperature is a method many women use to determine when ovulation occurs. To take a basal body temperature, one must use a basal thermometer (which is more sensitive) and take their body temperature before getting out of bed (or even sitting up) each morning. This method is utilized the best if a woman wakes up and takes her temperature at the same time daily.

Example Question #1043 : Nclex

A nursing student is participating in clinical practice on a labor and delivery unit. He is learning how to measure contractions. He knows that contractions are measured by frequency, duration, and intensity. Which timeframe correctly describes how the student should measure the frequency of contractions? 

Possible Answers:

The increment of the first contraction to the increment of the second

The acme of the first contraction to the acme of the second

The increment of the first contraction to the acme of the second

The increment of the first contraction to the decrement of the second

The increment of the first contraction to the decrement of the first

Correct answer:

The increment of the first contraction to the increment of the second

Explanation:

Increment is the beginning or rise of the contraction. Acme is the peak of the contraction. Decrement is the fall of the contraction. Frequency is measured from the beginning of one contraction to the beginning of another, so it should be measured from the increment of the first contraction to the increment of the second contraction.

Example Question #1043 : Nclex

While caring for a laboring patient, the nurse is called into the room because her patient felt a "gush" of fluid. Which of the following should be the nurse's next action?

Possible Answers:

Alert the physician

Change the sheets

Inform the mother of what she should expect next

Turn the mother to her right side

Assess fetal heart rate

Correct answer:

Assess fetal heart rate

Explanation:

The nurse must suspect rupture of the membranes (amniotic sac). Assess fetal heart rate if rupture of the membranes may have occurred. With rupture comes the potential for cord prolapse. Assess fetal heart rate for baseline variability. Marked variability may be cause for concern and the nurse should monitor the patient for signs of infection.

Example Question #245 : Conditions And Treatments

Which of the following symptoms is not a danger sign of pregnancy?

Possible Answers:

Increased urination

Fever or chills

Swelling in face or fingers

Persistent vomiting

Vaginal bleeding

Correct answer:

Increased urination

Explanation:

It is important for the obstetric registered nurse to recognize the following danger signs of pregnancy: profuse vaginal bleeding, severe headaches/visual disturbances/abdominal pain, persistent vomiting, fever, chills, or swelling in the face or fingers. These may be signs of placental abnormalities, hypertensive disorders or pregnancy, maternal infection, or hyperemesis. Increased urination may be concerning to some women, but during pregnancy, the increased mass of the uterus induces pressure upon the bladder. 

Example Question #1051 : Nclex

Which of the following tests may be used to assess the risk for neural tube defects in the fetus during pregnancy?

Possible Answers:

Amniocentesis

Ultrasound

Non-stress test (NST)

Alpha-fetal protein (AFP) test

Chorionic villus sampling (CVS)

Correct answer:

Alpha-fetal protein (AFP) test

Explanation:

The alpha-fetal protein (AFP) test is the only test that can predict neural tube defects in a fetus during pregnancy. CVS can detect fetal karyotype, sickle-cell anemia, phenylketonuria (PKU), Down syndrome, and Duchenne muscular dystrophy. Amniocentesis can detect genetic disorders and lung maturity. Ultrasounds provide images of the fetal position, measurements of the fetus and placenta, and can confirm pregnancy and gestational age. Non-stress tests (NST) are used to record fetal heart rate to assess fetal well being after 28 weeks gestation.

Example Question #1 : Symptoms And Tests For Ob/Gyn Conditions

What is the proper management of atypical squamous cells of undetermined significance (ASC-US) or low grade intraepithelial lesion (LSIL) in women age 21-24?

Possible Answers:

LEEP (loop electrosurgical excision procedure) 

Repeat cytology in 1 year

Cervical conization

Repeat cytology in 6 months

Correct answer:

Repeat cytology in 1 year

Explanation:

ASC-US or LSIL in women age 21-24 should be managed by repeat cytology in one year. Neither cervical conization nor LEEP (loop electrosurgical excision procedure) would be appropriate in a patient of this age or presentation.

Example Question #249 : Conditions And Treatments

What follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH) levels would be present in a patient with premature ovarian failure?

Possible Answers:

 and 

 and 

 and 

 and 

Correct answer:

 and 

Explanation:

Premature ovarian failure is the loss of ovarian function in an individual under the age of 40. A  and  would be indicative of this condition.

Example Question #1052 : Nclex

What are the signs and symptoms of ectopic pregnancy?

Possible Answers:

Nausea and diplopia

Cramping and abdominal mass

Abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding

Fundal tenderness and vertigo

Correct answer:

Abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding

Explanation:

The most common symptoms of ectopic pregnancy are moderate to severe abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding. Pain may be cramping or sharp. Bleeding can be heavy and the individual can even begin to bleed into their abdominal cavity. Ectopic pregnancy is not consistent with fetal survival and requires treatment with methotrexate or, in the case of bleeding, surgery may be indicated.

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