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Example Questions
Example Question #221 : Conditions And Treatments
A patient enters the labor and delivery unit. She is having a singleton birth and the baby is showing minimal variability on the fetal monitor. Interventions may include all but __________.
suggesting that the patient walk with a portable monitor
giving the patient a 500mL IV fluid bolus
placing the patient on a non-rebreather mask
placing the patient flat on her back
contacting the provider
placing the patient flat on her back
Increasing fluid and oxygen administration may increase the overall oxygenation of the fetus and result in greater variability in heart rate. It is advisable to change the position of the patient, however, a supine position is not compatible with pregnancy. Contacting the provider is an acceptable intervention given concern for fetal well-being.
Example Question #1022 : Nclex
What is the most common cause of mucopurulent cervicitis?
Herpes simplex virus
Neisseria gonorrhea
Chlamydia trachomatis
Human papillomavirus
Chlamydia trachomatis
The most common cause of mucopurulent cervicitis is chlamydia trachomatis, followed by neisseria gonorrhea. Human papillomavirus, while it is associated with increased risk of development of cervical cancer, does not cause mucopurulent cervicitis, nor does herpes simplex.
Example Question #1023 : Nclex
Which of the following conditions can result in temporary masculinization of a pregnant woman which resolves after delivery?
Placental aromatase deficiency
Chloasma
Growth hormone deficieny
Polycystic ovarian syndrome
Placental aromatase deficiency
Placental aromatase deficiency is a condition that prevents testosterone from being aromatized into estrogen during pregnancy. This results in a temporary masculinization of the mother that does not continue past delivery. Neither chloasma nor growth hormone deficiency result in masculinization, and masculinizing symptoms of polycystic ovarian syndrome often improve during pregnancy, rather than getting worse.
Example Question #1024 : Nclex
Which of the following conditions presents as vulvar pruritus and pain with porcelain-white vaginovulvular atrophy?
Bacterial vaginosis
Lichen sclerosus
Herpes simplex
Contact vulvitis
Lichen sclerosus
Lichen sclerosus is a condition that presents as vulvar pruritus and pain with porcelain-white vaginovulvular atrophy. It is most common in post-menopausal women, though it does occur on occasion in younger women and girls. While all of the other conditions listed can cause puritis and pain, none of them are associated with frank atrophy.
Example Question #1025 : Nclex
All of the following are part of the Amsel criteria for bacterial vaginosis except __________.
Vaginal pH > 4.5
All of there are part of the Amsel criteria for bacterial vaginosis
Thin gray or white vaginal discharge
A positive "whiff" test on addition of potassium hydroxide to the vaginal discharge
All of there are part of the Amsel criteria for bacterial vaginosis
The Amsel criteria for bacterial vaginosis are as follows: clue cells seen on microscopic examination, a positive "whiff" test on addition of potassium hydroxide to the vaginal discharge, a vaginal pH > 4.5, and thin gray or white vaginal discharge.
Example Question #226 : Conditions And Treatments
Which of the following is not a risk-factor for uterine leiomyoma?
Smoking
Red meat consumption
Family history
Obesity
Smoking
The main risk factors for uterine leiomyoma are family history, obesity, and red meat consumption. Smoking is not a risk factor.
Example Question #222 : Conditions And Treatments
Up to 90% of cases of pelvic inflammatory disease have what etiology?
Chlamydia trachomatis only
Neisseria gonorrhoeae only
Neisseria gonorrhoeae and chlamydia trachomatis
Human papillomavirus only
Neisseria gonorrhoeae and chlamydia trachomatis
75 to 90% of cases of pelvic inflammatory disease are caused by neisseria gonorrhoeae and/or chlamydia trachomatis infections. This condition, typified by adhesion formation in the uterus and fallopian tubes, can result in serious issues such as infertility, ectopic pregnancy, or reproductive cancer.
Example Question #18 : Causes And Treatments Of Ob/Gyn Conditions
Which of the following is part of the diagnostic criteria for pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)?
Elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)
All of these
Leukocytosis
Fever
All of these
The criteria for diagnosis of PID are as follows: fever, cervical motion tenderness, abdominal pain, leukocytosis, elevated ESR, and purulent cervical discharge.
Example Question #223 : Conditions And Treatments
What would be the primary concern in the case of rubella infection during pregnancy?
Maternal ocular damage
Maternal death
Birth defects
Gestational diabetes
Birth defects
The primary risk in rubella infection during pregnancy is to the fetus. The rubella virus is able to cross the placenta, and acts as a teratogen by inducing apoptosis in fetal cells. This is termed congenital rubella syndrome. Birth defects can include deafness, ocular damage, cataracts, congenital heart defects, hepatomegaly, and developmental disability or delays.
Example Question #224 : Conditions And Treatments
At what time during gestation is a fetus most susceptible to congenital rubella syndrome?
Week 12-20
The first 12 weeks after conception
Week 30-40
Week 20-30
The first 12 weeks after conception
Infants who are exposed to rubella during weeks 0-12 of gestation have a 51% chance of developing congenital rubella syndrome. If the fetus is exposed to the virus between 12 and 26 weeks, the incidence of defects drops to 23%. Congenital rubella syndrome is rare in infants whose mothers were initially exposed to the virus after 26 weeks of gestation. Interestingly, the fetus is more likely to have birth defects if the mother contracted rubella before conception - infants whose mothers contracted the virus 0-4 weeks before conception have as much as 43% incidence of congenital rubella syndrome, due to it's long incubation period.