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Example Questions
Example Question #231 : Conditions And Treatments
Which of the following is the definition of gestational hypertension?
Blood pressure over 160/95 mmHg or rise of more than 30 mmHg systolic or 15 mmHg diastolic over baseline
Blood pressure over 130/85 mmHg or rise of more than 35 mmHg systolic or 20 mmHg diastolic over baseline
Blood pressure over 140/90 mmHg or rise of more than 40 mmHg systolic or 25 mmHg diastolic over baseline
Blood pressure over 140/90 mmHg or rise of more than 30 mmHg systolic or 15 mmHg diastolic over baseline
Blood pressure over 140/90 mmHg or rise of more than 30 mmHg systolic or 15 mmHg diastolic over baseline
Gestational hypertension is defined as a blood pressure over 140/90 mmHg or rise of more than 30 mmHg systolic or 15 mmHg diastolic over baseline. It generally develops after week 20 of pregnancy and returns to normal after delivery.
Example Question #1032 : Nclex
Which of the following is NOT a part of the triad of gestational hypertension?
Headache
Proteinuria
High blood pressure
Edema
Headache
The classic triad of gestational hypertension is high blood pressure, proteinuria, and edema. New-onset headaches during a pregnancy that includes gestational hypertension may be a sign of a more severe condition, such as preeclampsia.
Example Question #233 : Conditions And Treatments
At what point in a pregnancy is preeclampsia most likely to develop?
12-24 weeks
20-32 weeks
0-12 weeks
After 32 weeks
After 32 weeks
Preeclampsia occurs more frequently in the last 8 weeks of pregnancy. Occurrence at an earlier gestational age is associated with increased severity and poorer outcomes for both mother and fetus.
Example Question #232 : Conditions And Treatments
Which of the following increases risk of ectopic pregnancy?
History of pelvic inflammatory disease
All of these are correct
Endometriosis
Post-tubal ligation
All of these are correct
Ectopic pregnancy is a serious condition in which an embryo implants in tissue outside the uterus. Risk factors include pelvic inflammatory disease, tubal ligation, endometriosis, tobacco smoking, history of infertility, and the use of assisted reproductive technology.
Example Question #233 : Conditions And Treatments
Which of the following is a risk factor for development of toxoplasmosis in pregnancy?
Undercooked meat
Exposure to cat feces (often via a litter box)
All of these
Contaminated water
All of these
Toxoplasmosis is a parasitic infection that is capable of crossing the placenta. It can cause birth defects such as hearing loss, learning disorders, and visual impairment. Toxoplasmosis infection is primarily a concern only in individuals who have never been exposed to the parasite before pregnancy, as most people develop immunity to infection 6-9 months after their first exposure (often through contact with cat feces in litter boxes or soil). The main routes of toxoplasmosis infection in pregnant women are exposure to cat feces, water contamination, consumption of undercooked meats, and blood transfusion.
Example Question #71 : Obstetrics And Gynecological Conditions
Which of the following conditions can be triggered by Rh incompatibility between mother and fetus?
Hemolytic disease of the newborn
Hyperemesis gravidarum
Postpartum hemorrhage
Gestational diabetes
Preeclampsia
Hemolytic disease of the newborn
Of the conditions listed, the only one that is associated with Rh incompatibility between mother and fetus is hemolytic disease of the newborn (otherwise known as hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn). In this condition, antibodies from the mother's blood attack the blood of the fetus. This is a major cause of fetal and newborn mortality and morbidity.
Example Question #1041 : Nclex
Which of the following maternal/fetal blood types can lead to hemolytic disease of the newborn?
Rh positive mother, Rh negative fetus
Rh positive mother, Rh positive fetus
Rh negative mother, Rh positive fetus
Rh negative mother, Rh negative fetus
Rh negative mother, Rh positive fetus
Hemolytic disease of the newborn occurs when an Rh negative mother is carrying an Rh positive fetus. The mother must have previously carried an Rh positive fetus and become sensitized to Rh-D antigen during miscarriage, pregnancy (due to placental rupture), or during delivery. Then, during a second pregnancy, anti-RhD antibodies from the mother's immune system can cross the placenta and attack the blood cells of the fetus, causing hemolytic anemia.
Example Question #1042 : Nclex
What treatment can prevent the development of sensitization to Rh-D antigen in an Rh negative mother carrying an Rh positive fetus?
Therapeutic abortion
Rh-D fetal serum injections
Short-course immunosuppressant treatment
Rho(D) immune globulin
Rho(D) immune globulin
Rh sensitization can be prevented by treatment of an Rh negative mother with Rho(D) immunoglobulin at 28 weeks, then again within 72 hours of delivery. This is a solution of IgG antibody to Rh-D, which is able to destroy any fetal red blood cells that enter the mother's bloodstream before her own immune system is able to form develop a sensitization.
Example Question #1044 : Nclex
A nurse working in labor and delivery is caring for a client that has been diagnosed with an incompetent cervix. The client has been informed by the physician she is now at risk for a spontaneous abortion. The client asks the nurse about possible interventions.
The nurse is aware the procedure performed for an incompetent cervix is called __________.
McReynold's procedure
tubal ligation
dilation and curettage
colporrhaphy
a Shirodkar procedure
a Shirodkar procedure
A Shirodkar procedure involves sewing a suture in and around the cervix to hold it closed. This is usually performed within the first trimester and later removed when the risk of miscarriage has lessened.
Example Question #1045 : Nclex
A pregnant woman at 43 weeks gestation is having labor augmented with oxytocin infusion. Which of the following best categorizes this particular drug?
Erythropoietin
Prolactin
Anti-diuretic hormone
Growth hormone
Thyroid-stimulating hormone
Anti-diuretic hormone
Oxytocin is often used to help augment labor by inducing contractions. This hormone is naturally made in the body and works as an anti-diuretic hormone (thus promotes the excretion of water). In labor, this hormone also works to stimulate uterine contractiity.
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