NCLEX-RN : Drug Identification

Study concepts, example questions & explanations for NCLEX-RN

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Example Questions

Example Question #1 : Cardiovascular Pharmacology

Which of the following is the most common adverse effect of calcium channel blockers?

Possible Answers:

Nausea

Edema

AV block

Gynecomastia

Correct answer:

Edema

Explanation:

All of these are possible side effects of calcium channel blockers, but the most common side effect is edema. Calcium channel blockers decrease blood pressure by hindering the influx of calcium into myocardial cells. They may also increase the diameter of blood vessels, which always results in decreased blood pressure.

Example Question #1 : Drug Identification

Which of the following conditions can be treated with hydrochlorothiazide?

Possible Answers:

Pericarditis

Angina

Atherosclerosis

Hypertension

Correct answer:

Hypertension

Explanation:

Hydrochlorothiazide is a thiazide diuretic, used primarily in the treatment of hypertension and edema.

Example Question #1 : Drug Identification

What class of drug is losartan?

Possible Answers:

Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor (ACE inhibitor) 

Calcium channel blocker

Loop diuretic

Angiotensin receptor blocker (ARB)

Correct answer:

Angiotensin receptor blocker (ARB)

Explanation:

Losartan is an angiotensin receptor blocker (ARB). This class of drugs lowers blood pressure by blocking the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II and is useful for patients who cannot tolerate ACE (angiotensin-converting enzyme) inhibitors' adverse effects.

Example Question #81 : Nclex

Diltiazem is an example of what class of cardiovascular medication?

Possible Answers:

Calcium channel blocker

Beta blocker

Potassium sparing diuretic

Angiotensin receptor blocker

Correct answer:

Calcium channel blocker

Explanation:

Diltiazem is an example of a calcium channel blocker. This class of drugs reduces blood pressure by relaxing smooth muscles in the walls of arteries, leading to vasodilation and decreased peripheral resistance.

Example Question #1 : Drug Identification

Which of the following describes the mechanism of action of the class of drugs known as beta blockers?

Possible Answers:

Block beta cell secretion in the pancreas

Block the production of angiotensin II

Block response to beta-adrenergic stimulation

Beta-2 adrenergic agonists

Correct answer:

Block response to beta-adrenergic stimulation

Explanation:

Beta blockers act by blocking response to beta-adrenergic stimulation. In that way they are beta-adrenergic antagonists, rather than agonists. ACE (angiotensin-converting enzyme) inhibitors, not beta blockers, block the production of angiotensin II, but both act to decrease blood pressure. Beta blockers have nothing to do with beta cells of the pancreatic islets, which secrete insulin.

Example Question #2 : Drug Identification

When educating a patient on a new beta blocker prescription which of the following safety information is most critical?

Possible Answers:

Beta blockers should be eaten with a meal that contains fat to improve absorption

Beta blockers can not be stopped abruptly due to risk of severe (even fatal) rebound hypertension

The patient must stay upright for at least 30 minutes after taking a beta blocker due to risk of esophagitis

Beta blockers may cause anxiety and tachycardia

Correct answer:

Beta blockers can not be stopped abruptly due to risk of severe (even fatal) rebound hypertension

Explanation:

The most critical safety information a patient must know when initiating beta blocker therapy is that they can not abruptly stop taking their beta blocker, due to the risk of rebound hypertension. A beta blocker would be more likely to cause bradycardia and a depressed effect than anxiety and tachycardia. Beta blockers are not associated with any type of esophagitis and they are not fat soluble, thus it is not crucial to eat a fatty meal with the drug in order to improve absorption.

Example Question #1 : Drug Identification

Which of the following heart medications is most likely to cause a chronic dry cough?

Possible Answers:

Atenolol

Amlodipine

Hydrochlorothiazide

Enalapril

Correct answer:

Enalapril

Explanation:

Enalapril is an ACE (angiotensin-converting enzyme) inhibitor. One of the most commonly reported side effects of ACE inhibitor use is a chronic dry cough. This is likely due to the medication's inhibition of kininase II (ACE), which results in a buildup of kinins in the respiratory tract.

None of the other medications listed are associated with persistent cough. 

Example Question #2 : Drug Identification

What is the antidote for overdose of warfarin?

Possible Answers:

IV magnesium

Protamine sulfate

Vitamin K

Heparin

Correct answer:

Vitamin K

Explanation:

The proper antidote for overdose of warfarin is vitamin K. Heparin will not reverse the effects of too much warfarin (it would only aggravate the problem). Protamine sulfate is the antidote for overdose of heparin. IV magnesium may be used to antidote digoxin if digibind is unavailable.

Example Question #1 : Drug Identification

Which of the following is an adverse effect in the client being treated for hypertension with enalapril?

Possible Answers:

Swelling of the tongue

Insomnia

Dry cough

Nausea

Correct answer:

Swelling of the tongue

Explanation:

A swelling of the tongue indicates that a client may be allergic to enalapril. Other indicators include rash, hives, itching, difficulty breathing, and tightness in the chest.

Example Question #3 : Drug Identification

Which of the following medications is a non-selective beta-adrenoceptor and alpha-adrenergic blocker?

Possible Answers:

Amiodarone

Lisinopril

Clonidine

Carvedilol

Correct answer:

Carvedilol

Explanation:

Carvedilol is a non-selective beta-adrenoceptor and alpha-adrenergic blocker. Lisinopril is an ACE (angiotensin-converting enzyme) inhibitor. Clonidine is an alpha-adrenergic agonist, and amiodarone is a sodium-channel blocker.

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