NCLEX : NCLEX

Study concepts, example questions & explanations for NCLEX

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Example Questions

Example Question #1091 : Nclex

You are the nurse assessing a 16-year old girl who is the star of her high school's gymanstics team who is admitted to the hospital for fatigue and weakness. You examine her and notice that she appears hypovolemic, her hair appears thin and brittle, her parotid glands appear swollen, her knuckles have excoriations, and her teeth appear slightly yellow. You suspect that she most likely suffers from which of the following?

Possible Answers:

Bulimia nervosa

Marfan's syndrome

Exogenous testosterone administration 

Anorexia nervosa

Hypothyroidism

Correct answer:

Bulimia nervosa

Explanation:

The correct answer is bulimia nervosa. 

Bulimia nervosa is an eating disorder in which a patient classically consumes large amounts of food (binge eating) and then induces vomiting (purge behavior) to expel the food prior to absorption in the gastrointestinal tract. As such, the patient restricts their ability to gain weight. Patients with bulimia nervosa are frequently successful, high-achieving individuals under a great deal of stress, and often may be adolescent athletes, as patients in this population frequently have specific weight cutoffs that they must achieve for their respective sports/activities. Some signs of bulimia nervosa, as exhibited by this patient, are thin, brittle hair, a hypovolemic appearance (due to frequent vomiting), excoriations on the knuckles (from self-inducing vomiting with their hands), yellow discoloration of the teeth (from the acidity of vomitus), and swelling of the parotid glands (colloquially known as "chipmunk cheeks") as a response to the frequent vomiting. Patients with bulimia may also use other methods to purge themselves of food and drinks including diuretic use, and/or laxative use. 

A key distinction between bulimia nervosa and anorexia nervosa is that in bulimia the patient exhibits a form of purge behavior following binge eating, whereas in anorexia, classically, the patient simply restricts eating rather than binging and purging. 

Hypothyroidism is not a correct answer choice because while this patient is exhibiting lethargy, weakness, and brittle hair, given the constellation of her other symptoms and exam findings, it is less consistent with her presentation than bulimia nervosa. If these symptoms persisted following treatment for bulimia, then hypothyroidism could be considered as a concurrent finding.

Exogenous use of testosterone would not account for the symptoms seen in this patient.

Marfan's syndrome would also not account for the symptoms seen in this patient.

Example Question #21 : Neural And Psychological Conditions

Patients with Alzheimer's dementia develop degeneration in which of the following memory processing centers of the brain?

Possible Answers:

Amygdala

Hippocampus

Wernicke's area

Prefrontal cortex

Occipital lobe

Correct answer:

Hippocampus

Explanation:

The hippocampus is implicated in memory formation and processing. As individual's age, the development of plaques in this area of the brain lead to the pathogenesis of Alzheimer's dementia. The amygdala is the brain structure associated with fear. Wernicke's area is for language formation. The occipital lobe deals with vision. The prefrontal cortex is involved with primative behavior and impulses.

Example Question #22 : Neural And Psychological Conditions

A 34 year old man presents with severe lower back pain, a feeling of numbness around his buttocks and inner thigh, erectile dysfunction, and incontinence. Which of the following conditions is likely to be causing his symptoms?

Possible Answers:

Parkinsons disease

Prostatitis

Cauda equina syndrome

Multiple sclerosis

Correct answer:

Cauda equina syndrome

Explanation:

While any of this patient's symptoms may be present in multiple sclerosis, this specific set of symptoms is typical of cauda equina syndrome. This is a condition in which trauma or impingement within of the spinal canal compresses the cauda equina, the bundle of spinal nerves and nerve roots near the base of the spinal cord. 

Neither prostatitis or Parkinson's disease generally present with this distinct triad of back pain, saddle anesthesia, and sexual and/or urinary dysfunction.

Example Question #23 : Neural And Psychological Conditions

Which of the following tests can help identify if an individual is actively having a seizure?

Possible Answers:

Electroencephalogram (EEG)

Computerized axial tomography (CAT) scan

Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of brain

Pulmonary function test (PFT)

Electrocardiogram (EKG)

Correct answer:

Electroencephalogram (EEG)

Explanation:

A seizure is an abnormal electrical event in the brain, usually caused by diffuse, rapid firing of neurons within the brain. An EEG is the diagnostic test used to capture events and identify where in the brain the impulse is generated from. EEG consists of electrodes placed on the scalp. The other tests mentioned cannot identify the electrical activity of the brain.

Example Question #1092 : Nclex

A 62-year old homeless male presents to the emergency department appearing agitated, confused, and panicked. You note that he is sweating profusely and when you take his vitals, he is hypertensive and tachycardic. He says that he takes "a pill from the street" every day that calms him down, but that he has not taken it for 24 hours. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

Possible Answers:

Ketamine intoxication

Cocaine withdrawal

Benzodiazepine withdrawal

Benzodiazepine intoxication

Heroin intoxication

Correct answer:

Benzodiazepine withdrawal

Explanation:

The correct answer is "benzodiazepine withdrawal" because the patient's presentation, with agitation, confusion, and panic, coupled with his physical and vital sign findings (tachycardia, hypertension, profuse sweating), and historical information (has not taken a regular medication of his for 24 hours) are all consistent with benzodiazepine withdrawal. Benzodiazepines are a class of medications that have anxiolytic and anticonvulsant properties, as they increase the efficacy of the neurotransmitter GABA. Given their anxiolytic properties, and in some types, their rapid speed of onset, they are a commonly abused class of drugs. 

Benzodiazepine withdrawal occurs when a patient who regularly takes benzodiazepine medications and has a physiological dependence abruptly stops taking these medications. Symptoms of benzodiazepine withdrawal include but are not limited to anxiety, panic, agitation, hypertension, tachycardia, diaphoresis, and inability to sleep. If untreated, this can lead to seizures and worsening confusion. As such, it is important to recognize these symptoms early and restart benzodiazepine treatment as early as possible in these patients.

Benzodiazepine intoxication, cocaine withdrawal, and heroin intoxication are incorrect as the patient would exhibit symptoms opposite those described in this example.

Ketamine intoxication is incorrect, as ketamine is a dissociative medication that would not likely cause this constellation of symptoms, and would be more likely to present with dissociative properties.

 

Example Question #291 : Conditions And Treatments

You are the nurse in a psychiatrist's office taking care of a patient who presents with three years of pulling at her hair in a compulsive manner. The patient states that she has a strong urge to pull her hair out, especially in times of stress, and that removing hairs helps to relieve tension. She is bald on two-thirds of her scalp, and feels very distressed and socially impaired. Which of the following best describes this patient's illness?

Possible Answers:

Walking-corpse syndrome

Agoraphobia

Social phobia

Arachnophobia 

Trichotillomania

Correct answer:

Trichotillomania

Explanation:

The correct answer is "trichotillomania." This is the correct answer, as this term describes the obsessive-compulsive condition in which patients have an uncontrollable urge to remove their hair, which causes baldness, and social/emotional distress and impairment. Patients typically pull hair from the scalp, eyebrows, lashes, and extremities. Treatment includes a variable combination of psychotherapy and/or medications.

On the other hand, the other choices are incorrect. Walking-corpse syndrome is a psychiatric condition in which a patient thinks that they are dead, while in reality, they are indeed alive. Arachnophobia is a fear of spiders. Agoraphobia is a fear of being in public places. Last, social phobia is a fear of social situations.

Example Question #32 : Neural And Psychological Conditions

A patient with a past medical history of hypertension comes into the emergency room reporting the sudden onset of the "worst headache of their life". They feel nauseous with blurry vision and generally appear unwell. What is the most likely diagnosis based on this history?

Possible Answers:

Subarachnoid hemorrhage

Subdural hemoatoma

Epidural hematoma

Herpes simplex virus

Correct answer:

Subarachnoid hemorrhage

Explanation:

The "worst headache of my life" or "thunderclap headache" is characteristic of subarachnoid hemorrhage. This is bleeding in the brain and must be treated urgently. It is usually caused by the rupture of a berry aneurysm within the blood supply to the brain. Hypertension is a major risk factor.

Example Question #292 : Conditions And Treatments

A 50-year-old female client recently diagnosed with multiple sclerosis, presents to the clinic after having a history of several neurological symptoms and is asking the nurse about her condition. The nurse is glad to teach the client about multiple sclerosis.

Which of the following statements about multiple sclerosis is correct?

Possible Answers:

Multiple sclerosis is a disease of the dopamine producing neurons of the substancia nigra of the midbrain, causing overall weakness. 

Multiple sclerosis is a autoimmune disease of the neuromuscular junction characterized by variable weakness of different muscle groups. 

Multiple sclerosis is a progressive and chronic degenerative disorder. The condition leads to demyelination of the nerve fibers of the central nervous system, causing various neurological defects. 

Multiple sclerosis is a disease where excess release of dopamine and increase serotonin levels of the brain lead to neurological dysfunction.

Multiple sclerosis is a genetically transmitted disease which affects the basal ganglia and the extra pyramidal system with a deficiency of acetylcholine. The effects are seen in both physical and cognitive dysfunction.  

Correct answer:

Multiple sclerosis is a progressive and chronic degenerative disorder. The condition leads to demyelination of the nerve fibers of the central nervous system, causing various neurological defects. 

Explanation:

Multiple sclerosis is an autoimmune process with no exact known cause. The myelin sheath is attacked and plaque formation occurs in various regions of the CNS. Without myelin, nerve conduction slows down and may eventually be completely blocked leading to widespread loss of function. 

Loss of the dopamine-producing neurons describes Parkinson's disease. Excess dopamine describes dementia. Deficiency of acetylcholine describes Huntington's disease, and the autoimmune disease of the neuromuscular junction is known as Myasthenia Gravis.

Example Question #2 : Causes And Treatments Of Neural Conditions

Bell's palsy is due to dysfunction of which of the following cranial nerves?

Possible Answers:

Cranial nerve VII

Cranial nerve IV

Cranial nerve III

Cranial nerve VIII

Correct answer:

Cranial nerve VII

Explanation:

Bell's palsy is due to dysfunction of cranial nerve VII, the facial nerve. The facial nerve provides motor control to the musculature of the face and sensory innervation of taste, facial sensation, and parasympathetic innervation of the submandibular and sublingual glands. 

  

Example Question #33 : Neural And Psychological Conditions

Which of the following classes of medication is not used for treatment of migraine headaches?

Possible Answers:

Antidepressants

Triptans

All of these may be used to treat migraines

Beta blockers

Correct answer:

All of these may be used to treat migraines

Explanation:

Migraine headaches are commonly treated at first by over the counter (OTC) medications such as NSAIDS and acetaminophen. Other treatment options include triptans, antidepressants such as amitriptyline, and anti-hypertensives (beta blockers and calcium channel blockers).

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