NCLEX : Musculoskeletal Conditions

Study concepts, example questions & explanations for NCLEX

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Example Questions

Example Question #11 : Musculoskeletal Conditions

What condition is characterized by high bone turnover due to accelerated osteoclast and osteoblast activity?

Possible Answers:

Giant cell tumor

Osteogenesis imperfecta

Paget's disease of bone

Multiple myeloma

Correct answer:

Paget's disease of bone

Explanation:

Paget's disease of bone is a condition characterized by high bone turnover due to accelerated osteoclast and osteoblast activity. This results in increased calcification of bones, especially prominent in the skull, pelvis, femur, and tibia. 

Osteogenesis imperfecta is an issue with collagen formation that causes fragile bones and multiple fractures. Multiple myeloma is a malignancy of plasma calls, and giant cell tumors are rare tumors that generally originate from the epiphysis of long bones (with no effect on bone deposition).

Example Question #326 : Conditions And Treatments

At what age will Paget's disease of the bone generally first present?

Possible Answers:

Children ages 6-12

Over 70

Early adolescence

Over 55

Correct answer:

Over 55

Explanation:

Paget's disease of the bone generally presents in after the age of 55, and is very rare in younger individuals. The prevalence in individuals over 55 is as high as 3%.

Example Question #12 : Musculoskeletal Conditions

Which of the following is a benign, bone-forming tumor characterized by a small area of neoplastic growth surrounded by an area of mature, reactive bone?

Possible Answers:

Fibrosarcoma

Osteoid osteoma

Osteosarcoma

Ewing's sarcoma

Correct answer:

Osteoid osteoma

Explanation:

Osteoid osteoma is a benign, bone-forming tumor characterized by a small area of neoplastic growth surrounded by an area of mature, reactive bone.

Fibrosarcoma, osteosarcoma, and Ewing's sarcoma are all malignancies. 

Example Question #1133 : Nclex

What is the most common primary malignancy of the bone (excluding hematopoietic malignancies)?

Possible Answers:

Ewing's sarcoma

Fibrosarcoma

Osteoid osteoma

Osteosarcoma

Correct answer:

Osteosarcoma

Explanation:

Osteosarcoma is the most common primary malignancy of bone, excluding hematopoietic malignancies, making up approximately 20% of all primary bone cancers. 

Fibrosarcoma and Ewing's sarcoma are relatively rare conditions, and osteoid osteomas are is non-malignant.

Example Question #12 : Musculoskeletal Conditions

About 75% of osteosarcomas occur in what region?

Possible Answers:

The upper arm

The distal femur or around the knee

The thoracic spine

The pelvis

Correct answer:

The distal femur or around the knee

Explanation:

Roughly 75% of osteosarcomas occur in the distal femur or around the knee. The next most common site is the upper arm. Spinal or pelvic involvement are rare. 

Example Question #14 : Musculoskeletal Conditions

The majority of osteosarcomas occur in what age group?

Possible Answers:

Individuals over 65 years of age

Middle age

Pre-teens and adolescents

Children under 10

Correct answer:

Pre-teens and adolescents

Explanation:

The majority of cases of osteosarcoma are in children and adolescents between the age of 10 and 25. It's the most common type of bone cancer in children and young adults, and the third most common cancer in teens.

Example Question #14 : Musculoskeletal Conditions

Which of the following is a neurological movement disorder typified by sustained muscle contractions causing abnormal posture, twisting, restricted movement, and pain?

Possible Answers:

Torticollis

Geniospasm

Dystonia

Ballismus

Correct answer:

Dystonia

Explanation:

Dystonia is a condition of sustained muscle contractions causing abnormal posture, twisting, restricted movement, and pain. Torticollis is a form of dystonia specific to the muscles of the neck. Ballismus is a condition of rapid, violent involuntary motions. Geniospasm is specific to the mentalis muscle, causing involuntary movements of the jaw.

Example Question #13 : Musculoskeletal Conditions

A 35-year-old male client presents to the emergency department after sustaining a severe tibial fracture to the left leg. The nurse is assessing the injury for possible complications including compartment syndrome.

All of the following interventions would be appropriate to compartment syndrome except __________

Possible Answers:

assess urine output for dark smoky urine

assess the bandage applied, loosen if necessary

notify the physician if no peripheral pulses are detected

elevate the injured limb and apply ice packs

assess for paresthesias, pallor, and pain in the left lower leg

Correct answer:

elevate the injured limb and apply ice packs

Explanation:

Elevation of the limb above the heart may slow arterial perfusion and raise venous pressure, and worsen circulation. Ice may cause vasoconstriction and further lead to circulation compromise. Both of these interventions would not be appropriate for compartment syndrome. 

Know the six P's of compartment syndrome: pallor, pain on passive movement, paresthesia, paralysis, pulses, pressure: all of these may be present in compartment syndrome. Pulselessness is an ominous sign of impending permanent damage, the physician should be notified. Muscle damage can lead to myoglobinemia of the blood thereby damaging the kidneys leading to rhabdomyolysis and dark urine. A tight bandage could further increase the pressure in the compartment and should be loosened if this is so. 

Example Question #332 : Conditions And Treatments

You are the nurse assessing a 19-year old male who presents to the emergency department with chest pain. He localizes the pain to the left parasternal region, and the pain is reproducible with direct pressure. You take his vital signs and they are all within normal limits. He says that he is a very active student who frequently lifts weights, rows crew, and runs marathons. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Possible Answers:

Costochondritis

Pulmonary Embolism

Acute Coronary Syndrome

Peripheral Vascular Disease

Diabetes Mellitus

Correct answer:

Costochondritis

Explanation:

The correct answer is "costochondritis." Costochondritis is an inflammation of the cartilage that bridges the sternum to the ribs. It is a very common cause of acute chest pain in young, healthy, physically active individuals without known cardiovascular disease. In this case, we have a very prototypical case: a young, physically active (especially with physical activity involving the chest like weight-lifting and rowing crew), otherwise healthy male with focal, reproducible chest pain in the parasternal area, and normal vital signs on presentation. When you see this history, this is a rather convincing case for costochondritis. There is no information given that would seem to indicate a personal or family history of cardiovascular disease, and thus, costochondritis would be the best answer choice. He can be treated conservatively with NSAID's for anti-inflammatory and pain control effects.

Acute coronary syndrome (e.g. myocardial infarction) is very unlikely in this patient as he is young and healthy, has reproducible, focal chest pain, is very physically active, and has stable vital signs. If there was a personal or family history of cardiovascular disease, or any report of recent drug use (particularly cocaine), then this could be higher on the differential.

Pulmonary embolism is very unlikely in this patient as there is no leg swelling reported, the chest pain is focal, the patient is healthy and active, and his vital signs are normal.

Peripheral vascular disease would not present with chest pain, and would be highly unlikely to be present in an otherwise healthy 19-year old.

There is nothing to suggest that this healthy, active 19-year old patient has diabetes mellitus from the information provided.

Example Question #1141 : Nclex

You are a nurse at an orthopedics clinic. You are taking care of a football player who suffered a very painful right knee injury. You are concerned that he may have injured the "unhappy triad." Which of the following correctly lists all components of the "unhappy triad" within the knee? 

Possible Answers:

PCL, LCL, Lateral meniscus

ACL, MCL, Lateral meniscus

PCL, MCL, Medial meniscus

ACL, MCL, Medial meniscus

ACL, LCL, Lateral meniscus

Correct answer:

ACL, MCL, Medial meniscus

Explanation:

The correct answer is "ACL, MCL, and Medial meniscus." This is the only answer choice that correctly lists all three components of the "unhappy triad." The unhappy triad is frequently injured in athletes who participate in contact sports, such as football. The injury mechanism often involves a direct, forceful hit to a firmly planted leg. The hit is forceful enough to rupture two ligaments (ACL and MCL), as well as the medial meniscus. The treatment for such an injury involves surgical intervention and a lengthy recovery period, though for patients inclined to partake in the rehabilitation process, they can often return to their desired sports after completion of surgery and rehab.

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