NCLEX : Causes and Treatments of Other Conditions

Study concepts, example questions & explanations for NCLEX

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Example Questions

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Example Question #11 : Causes And Treatments Of Other Conditions

Symptoms of acute human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) typically occur within how long after infection?

Possible Answers:

8-12 weeks

2-4 weeks

Greater than 1 year

4-8 weeks

1-2 weeks

Correct answer:

2-4 weeks

Explanation:

Symptoms of acute HIV generally occur 2-4 weeks after infection. A vast array of symptoms may be present such as fever, rash, generalized fatigue, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, and a sore throat. 

Example Question #951 : Nclex

The nurse prepares to insert a peripheral venous catheter (PVC). Which of the following is an incorrect step in this process?

Possible Answers:

Insert catheter bevel down at a 15-degree angle

Assess for infiltration or hematoma

Hold skin taut to stabilize vein

Explain procedure to patient and confirm identity

Secure catheter with tape

Correct answer:

Insert catheter bevel down at a 15-degree angle

Explanation:

The catheter needle must be inserted bevel up at an angle between 10 to 30 degrees. The correct steps for inserting an peripheral venous catheter (PVC) are: 1) explain procedure and check identity, 2) prepare equipment at the bedside on clean surface, 3) apply appropriate personal protective equipment as needed, 4) distend veins by applying tourniquet 4-6 inches above site, 5) clean site with facility-approved cleaning solution, 6) hold skin taut to stabilize vein, 7) insert catheter bevel up at an angle between 10 and 30 degrees, 8) pierce skin and vessel to enter vein, 9) advance catheter until blood return observed, then remove tourniquet, 10) withdraw needle from catheter and advance catheter to hub, 11) secure catheter with tape or facility-approved dressing, 12) attach IV tubing and begin infusion, 13) assess for complications including infiltration or hematoma.

Example Question #11 : Causes And Treatments Of Other Conditions

The surgical nurse cares for a patient status post umbilical herniorraphy. Which of the following nursing interventions is a priority for the nurse?

Possible Answers:

Preventing overexertion

Relieve urinary retention

Avoid coughing

Turn and deep breathe

Provide ice packs

Correct answer:

Avoid coughing

Explanation:

All of these are important nursing interventions for a post-op herniorraphy patient. The priority is to prevent increasing intraabdominal pressure. Relieving urinary retention and avoiding coughing are the most important considerations to achieve this priority, but it is most important for the nurse to remember to avoid coughing, as it is most likely to increase intraabdominal pressure. It is also important to remember because it is often promoted for other post-operative procedures, and this is one case where it is not.

Example Question #951 : Nclex

The community health nurse educates a group of young boys who are learning about hiking safety. Which of the following statements made by the nurse is not effective for preventing Lyme disease?

Possible Answers:

“You should be aware of where ticks infected with Lyme disease are located, particularly in the upper Midwest, New England, and the mid-Atlantic region.”

“You can take antibiotic medications before hiking to make sure you don’t get Lyme disease.”

“Try to cover as much of your skin as possible - long pants, long sleeves, long socks, and cover your neck and hands too.”

“After you hike in a Lyme disease-endemic area, carefully examine your skin for ticks.”

“You should wear insect repellant on your skin and clothes if you are in an area endemic to Lyme disease.”

Correct answer:

“You can take antibiotic medications before hiking to make sure you don’t get Lyme disease.”

Explanation:

Prophylactic antibiotics are not indicated for the prevention of Lyme disease. Antibiotics will be used after a tick bite when symptoms develop and an infection is suspected. The community health nurse should teach rules of prevention, including 1) knowing where Lyme disease is prevalent (New England, upper Midwest, mid-Atlantic states), 2) wearing long sleeves and long pants, covering as much skin as possible with clothing, 3) using insect repellant such as sprays over the whole body, and 4) checking for tick bites especially after exposure is anticipated, so you may receive care as quickly as possible if needed.

Example Question #151 : Conditions And Treatments

Which of the following should be restricted in a patient with end-stage renal failure?

Possible Answers:

Fluids

Potassium

All of these are correct

Protein

Correct answer:

All of these are correct

Explanation:

A patient with end-stage renal failure should be kept on a low-protein, low potassium diet. Fluid restriction is also an important part of management of patients with end-stage renal failure and patients on dialysis. 

Example Question #12 : Causes And Treatments Of Other Conditions

A 75 year old female with end-stage renal failure asks her nurse for advice about her diet. Knowing that this patient must adhere to a low-potassium diet, the nurse cautions her against which of the following foods?

Possible Answers:

Cherries

Eggplant

Apples

Orange juice

Correct answer:

Orange juice

Explanation:

Orange juice is very high in potassium. One 12oz glass of orange juice contains 705mg of potassium. This could easily increase blood potassium to dangerous levels. The other fruits and vegetables listed are all low-potassium foods suitable for consumption by individuals needing to follow a low potassium diet.  

Example Question #953 : Nclex

A nurse is looking over a basic metabolic panel for a 69 year old male. She notices that his BUN is . This value is __________.

Possible Answers:

borderline elevated

normal

elevated

depressed 

Correct answer:

normal

Explanation:

BUN, or blood urea nitrogen, is a measurement of the kidney's ability to excrete urea, which is a byproduct of protein metabolism. This patient's BUN is within normal range: the reference range for BUN is .  

Example Question #951 : Nclex

You are the nurse taking care of an elderly patient with severe dementia and limited mobility who is at a high risk for developing a pressure ulcer. Which of the following options is the best first-line approach to preventing development of a pressure ulcer in this patient?

Possible Answers:

Administering broad-spectrum intravenous antibiotics

Applying topical antibiotic ointment to cover the patient's entire body surface

Request a dermatology consult 

Turning the patient multiple times per day

Administer a one time dose of broad spectrum intramuscular antibiotics

Correct answer:

Turning the patient multiple times per day

Explanation:

The correct answer is "Turning the patient multiple times per day." This is the correct answer because in the preventive stage for pressure ulcer management, there is no need to perform any invasive procedures, administer antibiotics in a patient who may be at high-risk for needing broad-spectrum antibiotics in the future (hence fostering antibiotic resistance), or consult subspecialty services (as there is no dermatological condition to be treated at the moment). The best option to prevent a pressure ulcer in a patient who is at high risk for developing a pressure ulcer is to turn the patient regularly while they are in bed, if they are bed-bound. By turning the patient, the high-pressure areas that would be at the highest risk for development of a pressure ulcer are able to have relief from pressure for a greater proportion of the day/night, and as such, can have blood flow restored while the patient is turned. By allowing for maximal blood flow to these regions, the risk of ischemia and subsequent infection and/or ulcer development is decreased. Without the actual development of an ulcer or infection, administering antibiotics, either topically, intramuscularly, or intravenously is inappropriate.

Example Question #12 : Causes And Treatments Of Other Conditions

You are the nurse taking care of a 15-year old male wrestler at a primary care clinic who complains of a raised, red, ring-like rash with central clearing on his lower back that he states is very itchy. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

Possible Answers:

Tinea corporis

Tinea cruris

Tinea pedis

Tinea capitis 

Tinea manuum

Correct answer:

Tinea corporis

Explanation:

The correct answer is "Tinea corporis," which is also known colloquially as "ringworm." 

The described case is a classic case for tinea corporis, in which the patient is a young athlete, often a wrestler (due to the frequent skin-to-skin or skin-to-mat contact in damp, sweaty environments), who presents with an itchy, red, ring-like rash that exhibits central clearing. The word "corporis" qualifies that the fungal dermatophyte infection ("tinea") is specifically located on the body/torso/back region.

The other choices are incorrect as tinea capitis is a fungal infection of the scalp, tinea pedis is a fungal infection of the feet, tinea cruris is a fungal infection of the groin ("jock itch"), and tinea manuum is a fungal infection of the hands.

Example Question #961 : Nclex

You are a nurse in an emergency department and a patient presents with a 5 cm by 6 cm abscess on the dorsal aspect of his left hand. The hand is very painful, but he has full range of motion, and no sensory deficits. He is afebrile and has no systemic or localized symptoms aside from the abscess. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

Possible Answers:

Apply topical antibiotic to the abscess

Incision and drainage of the abscess

Inject steroid into the abscess

Amputate the affected hand at the wrist

Prescribe oral antibiotics without draining the abscess

Correct answer:

Incision and drainage of the abscess

Explanation:

The correct answer is "incision and drainage of the abscess." This is the correct answer, because an abscess, by definition, is a walled off collection of pus and bacteria, that is typically impenetrable to topical or systemic antibiotics. The only way to truly resolve an abscess is to incise and drain it, such that the walled off material can be expelled, and the pressure and pain can be relieved. Further, the material should be sent for culture so that the patient can be placed on appropriate antibiotics if the physician deems it necessary for post-drainage care. 

The other choices are incorrect. Surgical amputation of the affected hand would be a drastic measure for a localized abscess that is not otherwise causing limb ischemia or necrosis. Incision and drainage is a much more reasonable first step. Injecting a steroid into the abscess would be a potentially dangerous intervention as steroids decrease the body's immune response to infection, and as such, could increase the bacterial load within the abscess, allowing it to expand and become more serious. As mentioned earlier, topical and oral antibiotics would likely be impenetrable to the abscess and would be inappropriate first steps when the option of incision and drainage exists.

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