Inherited Metabolic And Single-Gene Disorders

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USMLE Step 1 › Inherited Metabolic And Single-Gene Disorders

Questions 1 - 10
1

A term newborn girl has an abnormal state newborn screen with phenylalanine 18 mg/dL (normal <2) and an elevated phenylalanine-to-tyrosine ratio. She is feeding well and appears normal on exam. Pregnancy is uncomplicated, and the mother denies alcohol or drug use. Family history is notable for a cousin with intellectual disability of unclear cause. Confirmatory plasma amino acids show markedly elevated phenylalanine with low tyrosine. Urine organic acids show increased phenylpyruvate. Genetic testing identifies biallelic pathogenic variants in the PAH gene. The parents ask what should be done now to prevent neurologic injury. What is the most appropriate next step in management?​

Begin dietary phenylalanine restriction with tyrosine supplementation immediately

Observe without intervention until developmental delays appear

Start levodopa-carbidopa to replace deficient catecholamines

Administer intravenous glucose to suppress amino acid catabolism

Explanation

This question tests understanding of inherited metabolic and single-gene disorders. These disorders often result from specific genetic mutations affecting metabolic pathways. In this vignette, the patient presents with elevated phenylalanine on newborn screen, which is indicative of phenylketonuria. The correct choice is A because it accurately explains the genetic mutation involved, leading to prevention of neurologic injury through diet. A common distractor is D which is incorrect because waiting for symptoms risks irreversible damage. Teaching strategies: Encourage students to focus on recognizing patterns in genetic mutations and their biochemical consequences. Practice with case studies to reinforce understanding of inheritance patterns and clinical presentations.

2

A 15-year-old boy with a history of intermittent severe limb and back pain presents with acute chest pain and shortness of breath after a viral illness. He has pallor, scleral icterus, and mild splenomegaly. Labs show hemoglobin 7.8 g/dL, reticulocyte count 9%, elevated lactate dehydrogenase, and indirect hyperbilirubinemia. Peripheral smear shows sickled erythrocytes and target cells. Hemoglobin electrophoresis shows 92% hemoglobin S, 6% hemoglobin F, and no hemoglobin A. His parents are asymptomatic; one sibling has “trait.” Genetic testing confirms a homozygous missense variant in the HBB gene. The family asks how this disorder is transmitted and why carriers are usually asymptomatic. What is the inheritance pattern of this disorder?​

Autosomal recessive with codominant expression at the protein level

X-linked recessive with lyonization in females

Mitochondrial inheritance with maternal transmission

Autosomal dominant with variable penetrance

Explanation

This question tests understanding of inherited metabolic and single-gene disorders. These disorders often result from specific genetic mutations affecting metabolic pathways. In this vignette, the patient presents with acute chest pain, anemia, and sickled erythrocytes, which is indicative of sickle cell disease. The correct choice is B because it accurately explains the genetic mutation involved, leading to codominant expression where carriers are asymptomatic but homozygotes have disease. A common distractor is A which is incorrect because sickle cell is recessive, not dominant with variable penetrance. Teaching strategies: Encourage students to focus on recognizing patterns in genetic mutations and their biochemical consequences. Practice with case studies to reinforce understanding of inheritance patterns and clinical presentations.

3

A 5-day-old boy has a positive newborn screen showing elevated phenylalanine. He is born at term and appears well. Confirmatory testing shows phenylalanine 22 mg/dL, low tyrosine, and increased phenylpyruvate in urine. Genetic testing demonstrates biallelic pathogenic variants in PAH. The parents ask why untreated disease causes intellectual disability and seizures. Which of the following best explains the pathophysiology of this condition?​

Impaired conversion of phenylalanine to tyrosine leading to neurotoxic metabolite accumulation

Defective urea cycle leading to hyperammonemia and cerebral edema

Defective glycogen breakdown leading to hypoglycemia and lactic acidosis

Inability to convert tyrosine to melanin leading to progressive demyelination

Explanation

This question tests understanding of inherited metabolic and single-gene disorders. These disorders often result from specific genetic mutations affecting metabolic pathways. In this vignette, the patient presents with elevated phenylalanine and low tyrosine, which is indicative of phenylketonuria. The correct choice is A because it accurately explains the genetic mutation involved, leading to neurotoxic buildup. A common distractor is B which is incorrect because it confuses with albinism or other tyrosine defects. Teaching strategies: Encourage students to focus on recognizing patterns in genetic mutations and their biochemical consequences. Practice with case studies to reinforce understanding of inheritance patterns and clinical presentations.

4

A 16-year-old boy with sickle cell disease presents for routine follow-up. He has a history of dactylitis as an infant and multiple vaso-occlusive crises. Exam shows scleral icterus and a palpable spleen tip is absent. Labs show hemoglobin 8.9 g/dL, elevated reticulocyte count, and indirect hyperbilirubinemia. Hemoglobin electrophoresis shows predominantly hemoglobin S with increased hemoglobin F. He asks why hypoxia and dehydration trigger painful crises. Which of the following best explains the pathophysiology of this condition?​

Autoantibody-mediated hemolysis leading to episodic complement activation

Polymerization of deoxygenated hemoglobin S leading to red cell sickling and vaso-occlusion

Reduced heme synthesis causing microcytosis and ineffective erythropoiesis

Defective spectrin causing membrane fragility and spherocytosis

Explanation

This question tests understanding of inherited metabolic and single-gene disorders. These disorders often result from specific genetic mutations affecting metabolic pathways. In this vignette, the patient presents with recurrent vaso-occlusive crises and anemia, which is indicative of sickle cell disease. The correct choice is A because it accurately explains the genetic mutation involved, leading to sickling under hypoxia. A common distractor is C which is incorrect because it describes hereditary spherocytosis. Teaching strategies: Encourage students to focus on recognizing patterns in genetic mutations and their biochemical consequences. Practice with case studies to reinforce understanding of inheritance patterns and clinical presentations.

5

The genetic mutation responsible for this patient's condition most likely involves which of the following mechanisms?

A missense mutation in a gene encoding a structural protein

A frameshift mutation in a tumor suppressor gene

An expansion of a CAG trinucleotide repeat

A defect in a transmembrane chloride channel protein

Explanation

The patient's presentation of chorea, psychiatric disturbances, and a family history consistent with autosomal dominant inheritance is classic for Huntington disease. This neurodegenerative disorder is caused by an expansion of a CAG (cytosine-adenine-guanine) trinucleotide repeat in the huntingtin (HTT) gene, leading to a toxic gain-of-function protein. The atrophy of the caudate nucleus is a characteristic imaging finding.

6

The primary molecular defect in this patient's condition results from which of the following?

Absence of the structural protein dystrophin in muscle cells

Improper protein folding and degradation of a transmembrane ion channel

Deficiency of the enzyme phenylalanine hydroxylase

Accumulation of GM2 ganglioside in neuronal lysosomes

Explanation

This patient's presentation of meconium ileus, recurrent pulmonary infections, and failure to thrive, along with an elevated sweat chloride test, is diagnostic of cystic fibrosis (CF). CF is an autosomal recessive disorder caused by mutations in the CFTR gene. The most common mutation (ΔF508) leads to misfolding of the CFTR protein, a chloride channel, which is then targeted for premature degradation in the proteasome, preventing its insertion into the cell membrane.

7

A mutation in the gene coding for which of the following proteins is the most likely cause of this patient's syndrome?

LDL receptor

Fibrillin-1

Type IV collagen

Neurofibromin

Explanation

This patient's constellation of findings, including tall stature, arachnodactyly (long, thin extremities), pectus excavatum, and myopia, is classic for Marfan syndrome. This is an autosomal dominant connective tissue disorder caused by mutations in the FBN1 gene, which encodes fibrillin-1. Fibrillin-1 is a key component of microfibrils, which form the scaffold for elastic fibers. Aortic root dilation and dissection are major cardiovascular risks.

8

To prevent the neurologic sequelae of this disorder, dietary intake of which of the following must be strictly limited?

Galactose

Tyrosine

Phenylalanine

Leucine

Explanation

The scenario describes phenylketonuria (PKU), an autosomal recessive disorder caused by a deficiency of phenylalanine hydroxylase. This enzyme converts phenylalanine to tyrosine. Without it, phenylalanine accumulates and is converted to phenylketones, which are neurotoxic. The musty odor is due to these metabolites. Treatment involves lifelong dietary restriction of phenylalanine.

9

This patient's acute hemolytic episode was most likely precipitated by oxidative stress in the setting of which underlying enzyme deficiency?

Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase

Aldolase B

Glucocerebrosidase

Pyruvate kinase

Explanation

This is a classic presentation of G6PD deficiency, an X-linked recessive disorder. The enzyme G6PD is crucial for the pentose phosphate pathway, which produces NADPH. NADPH is necessary to keep glutathione reduced, protecting red blood cells from oxidative damage. Triggers like certain drugs (e.g., sulfonamides), infections, or fava beans cause oxidative stress, leading to hemolysis in deficient individuals. Heinz bodies are aggregates of denatured hemoglobin.

10

This patient's condition is most likely caused by which of the following?

A reduced number of functional cell-surface LDL receptors

A mutation in the apolipoprotein B-100 gene

Increased activity of HMG-CoA reductase

Deficiency of lipoprotein lipase

Explanation

The presence of tendon xanthomas and markedly elevated LDL cholesterol in the context of a family history of premature cardiovascular disease is characteristic of familial hypercholesterolemia (FH). This autosomal dominant disorder is most commonly caused by mutations in the LDL receptor gene, leading to a decreased number of functional receptors on hepatocytes. This impairs the clearance of LDL from the circulation, resulting in severe hypercholesterolemia and accelerated atherosclerosis.

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