Substance Use And Addiction
Help Questions
USMLE Step 2 CK › Substance Use And Addiction
A 52-year-old man with alcohol use disorder has confusion, ataxia, and nystagmus in the ED. Glucose is 52 mg/dL. Which next step is best?
Provide oral folate and discharge with counseling
Order MRI brain prior to any treatment
Give IV dextrose first, then thiamine if symptoms persist
Administer IV thiamine before giving IV dextrose
Start IV naloxone due to altered mental status
Explanation
This question tests medical students' understanding of substance use and addiction management in a clinical context, focusing on psychiatric principles. Substance use disorders require a nuanced understanding of withdrawal symptoms, intoxication effects, and management strategies, emphasizing evidence-based practice. In this vignette, the patient's presentation and history provide critical clues for diagnosis and management, such as confusion, ataxia, nystagmus, and hypoglycemia in alcohol use disorder. The correct answer, choice A, is the best clinical decision because IV thiamine before dextrose prevents Wernicke encephalopathy exacerbation per neurology guidelines. A common distractor, choice B, is incorrect because giving dextrose first without thiamine can precipitate acute Wernicke syndrome in thiamine-deficient patients. Effective strategies include familiarizing oneself with withdrawal protocols and staying updated on guidelines. Practicing case scenarios and understanding the nuances of dual diagnosis can improve decision-making skills.
A 44-year-old woman takes high-dose alprazolam daily and stops abruptly 3 days ago. She has tremor, insomnia, and a seizure. Which medication is best?
Administer naloxone and observe
Give flumazenil to prevent further seizures
Start a long-acting benzodiazepine and taper gradually
Prescribe bupropion to treat withdrawal symptoms
Begin naltrexone to reduce cravings
Explanation
This question tests medical students' understanding of substance use and addiction management in a clinical context, focusing on psychiatric principles. Substance use disorders require a nuanced understanding of withdrawal symptoms, intoxication effects, and management strategies, emphasizing evidence-based practice. In this vignette, the patient's presentation and history provide critical clues for diagnosis and management, such as tremor, insomnia, and seizure after abrupt alprazolam cessation. The correct answer, choice A, is the best clinical decision because starting a long-acting benzodiazepine with gradual taper prevents severe withdrawal per psychiatric guidelines. A common distractor, choice D, is incorrect because flumazenil can precipitate seizures in benzodiazepine-dependent patients. Effective strategies include familiarizing oneself with withdrawal protocols and staying updated on guidelines. Practicing case scenarios and understanding the nuances of dual diagnosis can improve decision-making skills.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Inadequate pain management
Malingering
Opioid use disorder, severe
Somatic symptom disorder
Explanation
This patient meets multiple DSM-5 criteria for a severe opioid use disorder, including tolerance (needing higher doses), loss of control (taking more than intended, unsuccessful attempts to cut down), spending a great deal of time on the substance, and functional impairment (missing work). The presence of 6 or more criteria indicates a severe disorder. While he may have underlying pain, his behaviors clearly constitute a substance use disorder. Somatic symptom disorder involves distressing physical symptoms with excessive thoughts/feelings about them, which is not the primary issue. Malingering involves faking symptoms for external gain, which is not described here.
What is the most important step to distinguish between a primary depressive disorder and a substance-induced depressive disorder?
Initiate a trial of an SSRI medication
Administer the PHQ-9 depression screening tool
Obtain a detailed family history of mood disorders
Achieve a sustained period of abstinence from alcohol
Explanation
Heavy alcohol use can cause depressive symptoms that are indistinguishable from major depressive disorder. The most crucial diagnostic step is to determine if the mood symptoms persist during a period of sobriety. If the depressive symptoms resolve within about 4 weeks of abstinence, a diagnosis of substance-induced depressive disorder is made. If they persist, a primary depressive disorder is more likely. Starting an SSRI or obtaining more history is premature until the effect of the substance is removed.
Based on the DSM-5 criteria, what is the most appropriate severity specifier for this patient's alcohol use disorder?
Severe
In partial remission
Moderate
Mild
Explanation
The patient meets the following four criteria for alcohol use disorder: 1) unsuccessful efforts to cut down/control use; 2) continued use despite persistent interpersonal problems (wife's threats); 3) recurrent use in situations in which it is physically hazardous (DUI); and 4) craving (implied by inability to cut down). According to DSM-5, the presence of 4-5 criteria indicates a moderate substance use disorder. Mild is 2-3 criteria, and severe is 6 or more criteria. He is not in remission as he is actively using.
The patient's symptoms are most consistent with which of the following?
Major depressive disorder
Adjustment disorder with anxious mood
Generalized anxiety disorder
Cannabis withdrawal syndrome
Explanation
This patient is experiencing a classic cannabis withdrawal syndrome. Symptoms typically begin within a week of cessation after prolonged, heavy use and include irritability, anger, anxiety, insomnia, disturbing dreams, decreased appetite, and physical symptoms like headaches or sweating. The clear temporal relationship to quitting cannabis makes this the most likely diagnosis. While he has symptoms of anxiety and depression, they are better explained by the withdrawal syndrome.
Which of the following is the most appropriate management for this patient's condition?
Provide supportive counseling and psychoeducation
Start a short course of a benzodiazepine for dysphoria
Prescribe modafinil to treat her fatigue
Initiate treatment with bupropion
Explanation
This patient is experiencing stimulant withdrawal syndrome, often called 'the crash'. It is characterized by dysphoria, anhedonia, fatigue, and intense cravings. The withdrawal is not medically dangerous, and there is no FDA-approved pharmacotherapy. The mainstay of treatment is supportive care, including counseling, psychoeducation, and monitoring of mood. While medications like bupropion and modafinil have been studied, they have not shown consistent efficacy and are not standard of care. Benzodiazepines are not indicated.
Which of the following is the most appropriate initial medication for this patient's agitation and hypertension?
Intravenous haloperidol
Intravenous phentolamine
Intravenous lorazepam
Intravenous labetalol
Explanation
The management of sympathomimetic toxicity from cocaine focuses on controlling agitation, hypertension, and tachycardia. Benzodiazepines, like lorazepam, are the first-line treatment. They reduce central sympathetic outflow, thereby controlling agitation and lowering heart rate and blood pressure. Beta-blockers (even non-selective ones like labetalol) should be avoided due to the risk of unopposed alpha-adrenergic stimulation, which can worsen hypertension and coronary vasospasm. Haloperidol can be used for psychosis but does not address the underlying sympathomimetic storm as well as benzodiazepines. Phentolamine is a pure alpha-blocker used for refractory hypertension.
Which of the following is the most effective cognitive-behavioral strategy to discuss with this patient?
Help her identify triggers and develop specific coping skills for the event.
Advise her to have one non-alcoholic drink and then leave early.
Encourage her to tell the hosts not to serve alcohol at the wedding.
Suggest she avoid the wedding to eliminate the risk.
Explanation
A cornerstone of relapse prevention, a form of cognitive-behavioral therapy, is to identify high-risk situations (triggers) and develop proactive coping strategies. This could include planning what to say if offered a drink, having a non-alcoholic beverage in hand, identifying a support person to call, and having an exit strategy. Simply avoiding all triggers is often not practical and does not build coping skills. The other options are either not therapeutic or unrealistic.
Which of the following is the most serious potential complication of her current condition?
Acute psychosis
Serotonin syndrome
Generalized seizures
Hypertensive crisis
Explanation
This patient is experiencing acute benzodiazepine withdrawal. Abrupt cessation of long-term benzodiazepine use leads to a state of CNS hyperexcitability. While autonomic instability and perceptual disturbances are common, the most dangerous and life-threatening complication is the development of generalized tonic-clonic seizures. Management involves reinstating a long-acting benzodiazepine and initiating a slow taper.