Reproductive Endocrinology, Contraception, And Gynecologic Oncology

Help Questions

USMLE Step 2 CK › Reproductive Endocrinology, Contraception, And Gynecologic Oncology

Questions 1 - 10
1

A 29-year-old G0 with known endometriosis presents with worsening dysmenorrhea and deep dyspareunia despite continuous combined OCPs. She desires pregnancy in 1 year. History: laparoscopic diagnosis 3 years ago. Meds: continuous OCPs and NSAIDs. Exam: posterior uterine tenderness and nodularity of uterosacral ligaments. Pelvic ultrasound shows a 5-cm homogeneous left ovarian cyst consistent with endometrioma. What is the most appropriate management for this patient's condition?

Laparoscopic cystectomy with excision/ablation of endometriosis lesions

Total hysterectomy with bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy

Begin GnRH agonist therapy for 12 months without add-back therapy

Switch to cyclic OCPs to allow withdrawal bleeding and reduce pain

Stop OCPs and manage with NSAIDs alone until attempting conception

Explanation

This question tests knowledge in reproductive endocrinology, contraception, and gynecologic oncology, specifically focusing on surgical management of endometriosis with future fertility desires. Understanding the nuances in choosing appropriate diagnostic and management strategies is crucial in patient care. In this scenario, the worsening symptoms despite medical therapy and presence of endometrioma guide the most appropriate clinical decision. The correct choice, laparoscopic cystectomy with excision/ablation of endometriosis lesions, aligns with ASRM guidelines and directly addresses pain relief while preserving fertility. A common mistake is selecting total hysterectomy with bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy, which fails because the patient desires pregnancy in the near future. Teaching strategies include reviewing current guidelines on endometriosis surgery, understanding the indications and contraindications of various treatments, and practicing with similar clinical scenarios to reinforce learning.

2

A 45-year-old presents with postmenopausal bleeding and ultrasound shows a 5-cm complex adnexal mass without ascites. She is otherwise well. Exam: mobile adnexal mass. Labs: CA-125 normal. What is the most appropriate management for this patient's condition?

Start combined oral contraceptives to shrink the mass

Treat with methotrexate for suspected ectopic pregnancy

Order PET scan as the next diagnostic step

Reassure and repeat ultrasound in 12 months

Referral to gynecologic oncology for surgical evaluation given postmenopausal complex mass

Explanation

This question tests knowledge in reproductive endocrinology, contraception, and gynecologic oncology, specifically focusing on management of complex adnexal masses in postmenopausal women. Understanding the nuances in choosing appropriate diagnostic and management strategies is crucial in patient care. In this scenario, the postmenopausal status and complex adnexal mass guide the most appropriate clinical decision. The correct choice, referral to gynecologic oncology for surgical evaluation given postmenopausal complex mass, aligns with ACOG guidelines and directly addresses the malignancy risk. A common mistake is selecting reassure and repeat ultrasound in 12 months, which fails because it delays evaluation of a potentially malignant lesion. Teaching strategies include reviewing current guidelines on adnexal mass assessment, understanding the indications and contraindications of various treatments, and practicing with similar clinical scenarios to reinforce learning.

3

A 32-year-old G0 has irregular menses and infertility. She is a competitive runner with 10-lb weight loss, stress fracture history, and low libido. Meds: none. Exam: BMI 18, bradycardia. Labs: urine hCG negative, FSH low, LH low, estradiol low, prolactin normal, TSH normal. Pelvic ultrasound shows thin endometrium. What is the most likely diagnosis based on the clinical findings?

Primary ovarian insufficiency

Hyperprolactinemia due to pituitary adenoma

Late-onset congenital adrenal hyperplasia

Polycystic ovary syndrome

Functional hypothalamic amenorrhea

Explanation

This question tests knowledge in reproductive endocrinology, contraception, and gynecologic oncology, specifically focusing on diagnosis of amenorrhea in underweight athletes. Understanding the nuances in choosing appropriate diagnostic and management strategies is crucial in patient care. In this scenario, the low BMI, exercise history, and low gonadotropins guide the most appropriate clinical decision. The correct choice, functional hypothalamic amenorrhea, aligns with Endocrine Society guidelines and directly addresses the energy deficiency etiology. A common mistake is selecting polycystic ovary syndrome, which fails because it typically presents with hyperandrogenism and normal/high gonadotropins. Teaching strategies include reviewing current guidelines on amenorrhea classification, understanding the indications and contraindications of various treatments, and practicing with similar clinical scenarios to reinforce learning.

4

A 45-year-old presents with postmenopausal bleeding and pelvic mass. Ultrasound shows 8-cm complex adnexal mass and ascites. History: no prior cancers. Meds: none. Exam: nodular cul-de-sac. Labs: CA-125 elevated. What is the most appropriate management for this patient's condition?

Image-guided biopsy of the adnexal mass before any surgery

Start oral progestin therapy and repeat ultrasound in 3 months

Referral for exploratory laparotomy with staging by gynecologic oncology

Treat with antibiotics for presumed tubo-ovarian abscess

Laparoscopic cyst drainage and observation

Explanation

This question tests knowledge in reproductive endocrinology, contraception, and gynecologic oncology, specifically focusing on management of suspected ovarian malignancy in postmenopausal women. Understanding the nuances in choosing appropriate diagnostic and management strategies is crucial in patient care. In this scenario, the complex adnexal mass, ascites, and elevated CA-125 guide the most appropriate clinical decision. The correct choice, referral for exploratory laparotomy with staging by gynecologic oncology, aligns with NCCN guidelines and directly addresses the high malignancy risk. A common mistake is selecting image-guided biopsy, which fails because it risks tumor seeding in potential ovarian cancer. Teaching strategies include reviewing current guidelines on ovarian cancer staging, understanding the indications and contraindications of various treatments, and practicing with similar clinical scenarios to reinforce learning.

5

A 45-year-old with postmenopausal bleeding undergoes transvaginal ultrasound showing endometrial thickness 9 mm. History: obesity and chronic anovulation before menopause. Meds: none. Exam: normal cervix, no adnexal mass. Pregnancy test negative. Which diagnostic test is most indicated given the patient's symptoms?

Endometrial biopsy

Serum progesterone level

Pelvic MRI as the next step

Pap test with HPV cotesting

Repeat ultrasound in 3 months

Explanation

This question tests knowledge in reproductive endocrinology, contraception, and gynecologic oncology, specifically focusing on evaluation of thickened endometrium in postmenopausal bleeding. Understanding the nuances in choosing appropriate diagnostic and management strategies is crucial in patient care. In this scenario, the endometrial thickness of 9 mm and risk factors like obesity guide the most appropriate clinical decision. The correct choice, endometrial biopsy, aligns with ACOG guidelines and directly addresses the risk of hyperplasia or malignancy. A common mistake is selecting repeat ultrasound in 3 months, which fails because it delays necessary tissue diagnosis in a high-risk patient. Teaching strategies include reviewing current guidelines on endometrial sampling, understanding the indications and contraindications of various treatments, and practicing with similar clinical scenarios to reinforce learning.

6

A 45-year-old presents with postmenopausal bleeding. She is 6 years postmenopause. History: type 2 diabetes and obesity. Meds: metformin. Exam: normal cervix, small uterus. Transvaginal ultrasound shows endometrial thickness 3 mm and no adnexal mass. CBC normal. What is the most appropriate management for this patient's condition?

Routine Pap test as the next diagnostic step

Endometrial biopsy to rule out hyperplasia or malignancy

Start combined oral contraceptives for bleeding control

Reassurance and outpatient follow-up if bleeding resolves

Hysterosalpingogram to evaluate uterine cavity

Explanation

This question tests knowledge in reproductive endocrinology, contraception, and gynecologic oncology, specifically focusing on management of postmenopausal bleeding with thin endometrium. Understanding the nuances in choosing appropriate diagnostic and management strategies is crucial in patient care. In this scenario, the endometrial thickness of 3 mm on ultrasound guides the most appropriate clinical decision. The correct choice, reassurance and outpatient follow-up if bleeding resolves, aligns with ACOG guidelines and directly addresses the low risk of malignancy. A common mistake is selecting endometrial biopsy, which fails because biopsy is not indicated when thickness is below 4 mm in asymptomatic cases. Teaching strategies include reviewing current guidelines on endometrial evaluation, understanding the indications and contraindications of various treatments, and practicing with similar clinical scenarios to reinforce learning.

7

A 24-year-old G1P1 seeks long-term contraception. She has migraine with aura occurring monthly. No smoking. Meds: sumatriptan PRN. BP 118/72. Pelvic exam normal; pregnancy test negative. She wants a highly effective reversible method and lighter periods. Which contraceptive method is most suitable for this patient?

Combined ethinyl estradiol/levonorgestrel oral contraceptive

Levonorgestrel-releasing intrauterine device

Copper intrauterine device

Combined hormonal vaginal ring

Transdermal combined hormonal contraceptive patch

Explanation

This question tests knowledge in reproductive endocrinology, contraception, and gynecologic oncology, specifically focusing on contraceptive selection in patients with migraine with aura. Understanding the nuances in choosing appropriate diagnostic and management strategies is crucial in patient care. In this scenario, the patient's history of migraine with aura and desire for lighter periods guide the most appropriate clinical decision. The correct choice, levonorgestrel-releasing intrauterine device, aligns with US MEC guidelines and directly addresses the patient's need for a non-estrogen method that reduces menstrual flow. A common mistake is selecting combined ethinyl estradiol/levonorgestrel oral contraceptive, which fails because estrogen-containing methods are contraindicated in migraine with aura due to increased stroke risk. Teaching strategies include reviewing current guidelines on contraceptive safety, understanding the indications and contraindications of various treatments, and practicing with similar clinical scenarios to reinforce learning.

8

A 32-year-old G0 with infertility and irregular cycles has obesity and hirsutism. Meds: none. Exam: BMI 35, acanthosis nigricans. Labs: urine hCG negative, TSH normal, prolactin normal, total testosterone elevated, 17-hydroxyprogesterone normal. She is starting ovulation induction. What is the first-line treatment for this condition?

Combined oral contraceptives

Letrozole

Bilateral oophorectomy

Bromocriptine

Gonadotropin injections as initial therapy

Explanation

This question tests knowledge in reproductive endocrinology, contraception, and gynecologic oncology, specifically focusing on ovulation induction in polycystic ovary syndrome. Understanding the nuances in choosing appropriate diagnostic and management strategies is crucial in patient care. In this scenario, the clinical features of PCOS and desire for ovulation induction guide the most appropriate clinical decision. The correct choice, letrozole, aligns with ACOG recommendations and directly addresses first-line therapy for anovulatory infertility in PCOS. A common mistake is selecting combined oral contraceptives, which fails because they suppress ovulation rather than induce it. Teaching strategies include reviewing current guidelines on fertility treatments in PCOS, understanding the indications and contraindications of various treatments, and practicing with similar clinical scenarios to reinforce learning.

9

A 32-year-old G0 presents with infertility and irregular cycles. She reports milky nipple discharge and headaches. Meds: none. Exam: galactorrhea present; visual fields normal. Tests: urine hCG negative, prolactin 85 ng/mL, TSH normal, FSH/LH low-normal. Pelvic ultrasound normal. Which diagnostic test is most indicated given the patient's symptoms?

MRI of the pituitary with contrast

Serum CA-125 level

CT scan of the abdomen to evaluate adrenal mass

Karyotype analysis for Turner syndrome

Hysteroscopy to evaluate the endometrial cavity

Explanation

This question tests knowledge in reproductive endocrinology, contraception, and gynecologic oncology, specifically focusing on evaluation of hyperprolactinemia in infertility. Understanding the nuances in choosing appropriate diagnostic and management strategies is crucial in patient care. In this scenario, the elevated prolactin, galactorrhea, and headaches guide the most appropriate clinical decision. The correct choice, MRI of the pituitary with contrast, aligns with Endocrine Society guidelines and directly addresses the suspicion for pituitary adenoma. A common mistake is selecting serum CA-125 level, which fails because it is irrelevant to hyperprolactinemia without ovarian pathology. Teaching strategies include reviewing current guidelines on prolactin disorders, understanding the indications and contraindications of various treatments, and practicing with similar clinical scenarios to reinforce learning.

10

A 24-year-old seeks contraception. She has migraine with aura and a history of DVT 2 years ago after surgery; she is no longer anticoagulated. Meds: sumatriptan PRN. BP 120/76. Pregnancy test negative. She wants a reliable method and prefers to avoid heavier bleeding. Which contraceptive method is most suitable for this patient?

Combined hormonal patch

Diethylstilbestrol for contraception

Combined oral contraceptive pill

Levonorgestrel-releasing intrauterine device

Combined hormonal vaginal ring

Explanation

This question tests knowledge in reproductive endocrinology, contraception, and gynecologic oncology, specifically focusing on contraception in patients with thrombosis history and migraine with aura. Understanding the nuances in choosing appropriate diagnostic and management strategies is crucial in patient care. In this scenario, the prior DVT and migraine with aura guide the most appropriate clinical decision. The correct choice, levonorgestrel-releasing intrauterine device, aligns with US MEC guidelines and directly addresses the need for a progestin-only method that lightens bleeding. A common mistake is selecting combined oral contraceptive pill, which fails because estrogen is contraindicated due to thrombotic risk. Teaching strategies include reviewing current guidelines on high-risk contraception, understanding the indications and contraindications of various treatments, and practicing with similar clinical scenarios to reinforce learning.

Page 1 of 4