Pregnancy Complications
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USMLE Step 2 CK › Pregnancy Complications
ED: 35-year-old G3P2 at 36 weeks with painful bleeding and hypertonic uterus; BP 90/55, HR 122. Most appropriate immediate intervention?
Begin IV fluids, type and cross, and transfuse as needed
Give methotrexate to treat presumed ectopic pregnancy
Administer terbutaline to relax the uterus
Perform digital exam to assess placenta previa
Order outpatient NST and follow up tomorrow
Explanation
This question tests knowledge of pregnancy complications in obstetrics and gynecology, specifically stabilizing hemorrhagic shock in abruption. Understanding pregnancy complications involves recognizing signs of hypovolemia and coagulopathy in abruption. In this scenario, specific details such as hypotension, tachycardia, painful bleeding, and hypertonic uterus require immediate resuscitation. The correct answer, 'Begin IV fluids, type and cross, and transfuse as needed', aligns with guidelines for maternal stabilization. A common distractor might suggest 'Administer terbutaline to relax the uterus', which does not address hemodynamic instability. Teaching strategies include emphasizing ABCs in obstetric emergencies. Practice applying these principles through case studies and simulations for rapid response.
L&D: 32-year-old G2P1 at 34 weeks with preeclampsia develops tonic-clonic seizure. Airway protected. Most effective immediate treatment?
Immediate discharge after seizure resolves
IV phenytoin loading dose
Oral labetalol and observation
IV magnesium sulfate bolus and infusion
IV diazepam as sole therapy
Explanation
This question tests knowledge of pregnancy complications in obstetrics and gynecology, specifically treating eclampsia seizures. Understanding pregnancy complications involves rapid administration of anticonvulsants in preeclampsia progression. In this scenario, specific details such as tonic-clonic seizure at 34 weeks require immediate therapy. The correct answer, 'IV magnesium sulfate bolus and infusion', aligns with guidelines as first-line for eclampsia. A common distractor might suggest 'IV diazepam as sole therapy', which is less effective long-term. Teaching strategies include emphasizing magnesium dosing and monitoring. Practice applying these principles through case studies and simulations for emergency response.
ED: 35-year-old G3P2 at 36 weeks has sudden abdominal pain and heavy vaginal bleeding; uterus firm, fetal tracing shows late decelerations. Next management step?
Perform digital cervical exam to assess dilation
Schedule outpatient ultrasound to confirm placental location
Order MRI pelvis to grade abruption severity
Administer tocolytics and observe for 24 hours
Initiate maternal stabilization and urgent delivery
Explanation
This question tests knowledge of pregnancy complications in obstetrics and gynecology, specifically the management of placental abruption with fetal distress. Understanding pregnancy complications involves recognizing clinical signs like sudden pain, heavy bleeding, firm uterus, and fetal heart rate abnormalities. In this scenario, specific details such as 36 weeks gestation, firm uterus, and late decelerations point towards abruption requiring urgent intervention. The correct answer, 'Initiate maternal stabilization and urgent delivery', aligns with guidelines for managing abruption with hemodynamic instability or fetal compromise. A common distractor might suggest 'Perform digital cervical exam to assess dilation', which is contraindicated due to risk of exacerbating bleeding. Teaching strategies include emphasizing rapid assessment and stabilization in obstetric emergencies. Practice applying these principles through case studies and simulations to improve recognition of abruption signs.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Inevitable abortion
Missed abortion
Threatened abortion
Incomplete abortion
Explanation
This patient's presentation is consistent with an inevitable abortion, which is characterized by vaginal bleeding, a dilated cervical os, but no passage of products of conception from the uterus yet. The presence of products of conception at the os indicates that passage is imminent. A threatened abortion would have a closed cervical os. An incomplete abortion involves the passage of some, but not all, products of conception. A missed abortion involves fetal demise without cervical change or passage of tissue.
Which of the following is the most appropriate immediate management for this patient?
Perform an emergency cesarean delivery.
Administer nifedipine and obtain a 24-hour urine protein collection.
Administer magnesium sulfate and proceed with induction of labor.
Administer labetalol and proceed with induction of labor.
Explanation
This patient presents with preeclampsia with severe features, as evidenced by severe-range blood pressure (≥160/110 mmHg), headache, and laboratory findings consistent with HELLP syndrome (Hemolysis, Elevated Liver enzymes, Low Platelets). The most critical initial step is to prevent eclamptic seizures by administering magnesium sulfate. Definitive management is delivery, which should be initiated promptly. While antihypertensives like labetalol are also necessary to control blood pressure, seizure prophylaxis with magnesium sulfate is the priority in the setting of severe features. An emergency cesarean delivery is not required if the fetal status is reassuring and there are no contraindications to a trial of labor. Further diagnostic testing like a 24-hour urine collection would delay necessary treatment.
Which of the following is the most appropriate initial management for this patient?
Metformin therapy
Insulin therapy
Diet and exercise modification
Repeat the test in 2 weeks
Explanation
The patient's oral glucose tolerance test is diagnostic for gestational diabetes mellitus (GDM), with all four values exceeding the upper limit of normal (diagnosis requires at least two abnormal values). The initial and cornerstone of management for GDM is lifestyle modification, which includes dietary counseling (e.g., diabetic diet) and regular exercise. Pharmacologic therapy, such as insulin or metformin, is reserved for patients who fail to achieve glycemic control with diet and exercise alone. Repeating the test is unnecessary as the diagnosis is already established.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
Uterine rupture
Placenta previa
Placental abruption
Vasa previa
Explanation
The classic presentation of placenta previa is painless, bright red vaginal bleeding in the third trimester. The uterus is typically soft and non-tender, and the fetal heart tracing is often reassuring initially. A history of a low-lying placenta on a prior ultrasound further supports this diagnosis. Placental abruption typically presents with painful vaginal bleeding and a tender, firm uterus. Uterine rupture is characterized by intense abdominal pain and fetal distress. Vasa previa classically presents with bleeding immediately following rupture of membranes, accompanied by acute fetal distress.
Which of the following is the most appropriate management?
Perform an immediate cesarean delivery.
Admit for expectant management and weekly blood pressure checks.
Proceed with induction of labor.
Start oral labetalol and follow up as an outpatient in one week.
Explanation
According to current guidelines, delivery is recommended for patients with gestational hypertension or preeclampsia without severe features at or beyond 37 0/7 weeks of gestation. This patient is at 38 weeks. Induction of labor is the appropriate management to prevent the potential progression to preeclampsia with severe features and other adverse maternal and fetal outcomes. Expectant management is not recommended at term. While antihypertensives may be used, delivery is the definitive management. Cesarean delivery is not indicated without a maternal or fetal indication.
What is the most appropriate next step in management?
Prepare for immediate emergency cesarean delivery.
Administer corticosteroids for fetal lung maturity.
Perform a transvaginal ultrasound to confirm the diagnosis.
Administer tocolytics to stop uterine contractions.
Explanation
This patient's presentation of trauma, painful vaginal bleeding, a rigid and tender uterus, maternal tachycardia, and fetal bradycardia is classic for a severe placental abruption. This is a life-threatening emergency for both the mother and fetus. The most appropriate next step is immediate delivery via emergency cesarean section. Diagnostic studies like ultrasound should not delay definitive management in an unstable patient. Tocolytics are contraindicated in placental abruption. Corticosteroids are appropriate for anticipated preterm birth but are not the priority over immediate delivery in the setting of maternal and fetal compromise.
Which of the following is the most appropriate recommendation for delivery?
Schedule induction of labor between 39 0/7 and 39 6/7 weeks.
Continue expectant management until spontaneous labor or 41 weeks.
Admit for continuous inpatient fetal monitoring until delivery.
Schedule a primary cesarean delivery due to estimated fetal weight.
Explanation
For women with well-controlled gestational diabetes (A1GDM), delivery is recommended between 39 0/7 and 39 6/7 weeks of gestation. This timing balances the risk of stillbirth associated with post-term pregnancy in diabetic mothers against the risks of prematurity. Expectant management beyond 40 weeks is generally not recommended. A primary cesarean delivery for suspected macrosomia is typically considered only when the estimated fetal weight is >4500 g. Continuous monitoring is not necessary in a well-controlled patient with reassuring fetal testing.