Postoperative Complications

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USMLE Step 2 CK › Postoperative Complications

Questions 1 - 10
1

POD0 after splenectomy, 28M has persistent tachycardia and hypotension despite 2L fluids; FAST shows free intraperitoneal fluid. Most appropriate next step?

Observe in PACU with repeat vitals in 2 hours

Return to operating room for hemorrhage control

Order D-dimer and lower-extremity Doppler studies

Start IV steroids for presumed adrenal crisis

Administer acetaminophen for postoperative fever

Explanation

This question tests the ability to identify and manage common postoperative complications in a clinical setting. The concept focuses on recognizing deviation from expected recovery trajectories and applying appropriate management strategies. In this vignette, the patient's symptoms of persistent tachycardia and hypotension post-splenectomy suggest intraabdominal bleeding. The FAST showing free fluid confirms this diagnosis. Choice A is correct because it aligns with the best practice for managing postoperative hemorrhage. Choice D is incorrect because it represents a common misinterpretation of instability as routine. Students often overlook need for re-exploration. Teaching strategies include emphasizing differential diagnosis post-surgery and recognizing early signs of complications. Encourage students to become familiar with common postoperative issues and their management through case studies and clinical rotations.

2

6 hours after thyroidectomy, 43F has neck swelling, stridor, HR 120, O2 88%; incision tense. Most appropriate initial treatment?

Open incision to evacuate hematoma immediately

Reassure; swelling is expected after surgery

Administer oral antibiotics for wound infection

Order CT neck with contrast before intervention

Start heparin for suspected pulmonary embolism

Explanation

This question tests the ability to identify and manage common postoperative complications in a clinical setting. The concept focuses on recognizing deviation from expected recovery trajectories and applying appropriate management strategies. In this vignette, the patient's symptoms of neck swelling, stridor, and hypoxia post-thyroidectomy suggest hematoma. The tense incision confirms this diagnosis. Choice A is correct because it aligns with the best practice for managing airway-compromising hematoma. Choice D is incorrect because it represents a common misinterpretation of swelling as normal. Students often overlook urgency in airway issues. Teaching strategies include emphasizing differential diagnosis post-surgery and recognizing early signs of complications. Encourage students to become familiar with common postoperative issues and their management through case studies and clinical rotations.

3

POD3 after laparotomy, 62F has tense, violaceous wound edges with severe pain, fever 39.2°C; WBC 22,000; CT shows subcutaneous gas. Next step?

Immediate surgical debridement and broad antibiotics

Topical antifungal therapy for candidiasis

Apply warm compresses and observe overnight

Oral cephalexin and outpatient reassessment

Delay intervention until wound cultures return

Explanation

This question tests the ability to identify and manage common postoperative complications in a clinical setting. The concept focuses on recognizing deviation from expected recovery trajectories and applying appropriate management strategies. In this vignette, the patient's symptoms of tense violaceous edges, severe pain, and fever post-laparotomy suggest necrotizing fasciitis. The CT showing subcutaneous gas confirms this diagnosis. Choice A is correct because it aligns with the best practice for managing necrotizing infection. Choice B is incorrect because it represents a common misinterpretation of severity. Students often overlook rapid progression. Teaching strategies include emphasizing differential diagnosis post-surgery and recognizing early signs of complications. Encourage students to become familiar with common postoperative issues and their management through case studies and clinical rotations.

4

Which of the following is the most critical next step in management?

Order an urgent MRI of the affected area

Administer tetanus immunoglobulin

Perform emergent surgical debridement

Obtain wound cultures and start broad-spectrum antibiotics

Explanation

The combination of severe pain out of proportion to exam, fever, dusky skin changes, and crepitus is pathognomonic for necrotizing soft tissue infection (necrotizing fasciitis). This is a surgical emergency with high mortality. While antibiotics and fluid resuscitation are crucial, the definitive and most critical intervention is immediate and aggressive surgical debridement of all necrotic tissue. Delaying surgery for imaging can be fatal.

5

This clinical presentation is most consistent with which of the following complications?

Prolonged postoperative ileus

Intra-abdominal abscess

Surgical site infection

Anastomotic leak

Explanation

The constellation of systemic inflammatory response (fever, tachycardia), peritonitis (diffuse pain, rebound), and the change in drain output to feculent material is pathognomonic for an anastomotic leak after colorectal surgery. This is a life-threatening complication requiring urgent intervention. While this can lead to an abscess (D), the primary event is the leak itself.

6

Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in diagnosis?

D-dimer assay

Contrast venography

Compression ultrasonography

Initiate therapeutic anticoagulation empirically

Explanation

The patient's signs and symptoms (unilateral leg swelling, pain, erythema) after major orthopedic surgery are highly suspicious for a deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Compression ultrasonography is the first-line, non-invasive imaging modality to confirm the diagnosis. A D-dimer assay is not useful in this setting because the patient's pre-test probability is high, and it will likely be elevated from the recent surgery regardless.

7

What is the most appropriate immediate step in management?

Open the surgical incision at the bedside

Prepare for emergent cricothyrotomy

Obtain an urgent CT scan of the neck

Administer nebulized racemic epinephrine

Explanation

This patient has an expanding neck hematoma causing acute airway compromise, a life-threatening emergency. The hematoma must be evacuated immediately to relieve pressure on the trachea. The most appropriate and time-sensitive intervention is to open the surgical staples or sutures at the bedside to allow the hematoma to decompress. This should be done even before attempting formal intubation, as the external compression may make intubation impossible.

8

Which of the following factors is the most likely contributor to this patient's postoperative complication?

Prophylactic antibiotic use

Use of opioid analgesia

Perioperative hypotension

Inadequate intravenous fluid administration

Explanation

The patient has acute urinary retention. Multiple factors contribute, but in this case, the use of opioids is a major precipitant. Opioids decrease the sensation of bladder fullness and inhibit the detrusor muscle's contractility, leading to retention. This effect is compounded by his underlying BPH and the effects of anesthesia. The other options are less likely to be the primary cause of urinary retention.

9

Which of the following is the most appropriate management?

Admission for intravenous antibiotics and observation

Local wound care with regular cleansing and packing

Emergent return to the operating room for fascial re-closure

Application of a sterile occlusive dressing and reassurance

Explanation

This patient has a superficial wound dehiscence, where only the skin and subcutaneous layers have separated, but the fascia remains intact. This is not a surgical emergency. The appropriate management is conservative, involving local wound care. The wound should be gently cleansed and packed with moist gauze, allowing it to heal by secondary intention. Antibiotics are not needed in the absence of infection.

10

Which of the following is the most likely cause of her fever?

Atelectasis

Surgical site infection

Deep vein thrombosis

Catheter-associated urinary tract infection

Explanation

The timing of the fever (postoperative day 3), recent history of an indwelling catheter, and new-onset confusion in an elderly patient are highly suggestive of a catheter-associated urinary tract infection (CAUTI). While atelectasis is common earlier, it typically occurs on POD 1-2. Surgical site infections usually present later (POD 5-7). Deep vein thrombosis is less likely to cause a high fever as the primary presenting sign.

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