Perioperative Management

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USMLE Step 2 CK › Perioperative Management

Questions 1 - 10
1

A 72-year-old man with hypertension and diabetes is scheduled for elective laparoscopic cholecystectomy. He has exertional chest tightness when walking uphill that resolves with rest; symptoms are unchanged for 6 months. He can climb one flight of stairs but must stop due to chest discomfort.

Physical exam:

  • BP 136/80 mm Hg, HR 70
  • Normal heart sounds; lungs clear

Pertinent studies:

  • ECG: Q waves in V1–V2; no acute changes
  • Troponin not obtained

Current medications:

  • Metoprolol
  • Aspirin
  • Atorvastatin
  • Metformin

What is the most appropriate preoperative assessment for this patient?

Order noninvasive stress testing before surgery

Order serial troponins for 24 hours pre-op

Order transthoracic echocardiogram routinely

Obtain pre-op coronary angiography routinely

Proceed to surgery without further cardiac testing

Explanation

This question tests USMLE Step 2 CK perioperative management skills, specifically the ability to optimize patients preoperatively and manage perioperative risks. Perioperative management involves evaluating surgical risk, optimizing medical conditions, and planning for potential complications. In this vignette, the patient presents with exertional chest tightness and poor functional capacity, requiring cardiac evaluation before elective surgery. The correct choice, C, is supported by ACC/AHA guidelines for preoperative cardiac risk assessment, addressing the patient's active symptoms and inability to achieve 4 METs. A common distractor, A, fails because it ignores unstable angina symptoms, often due to overreliance on asymptomatic status. Effective teaching strategies include reviewing current guidelines for perioperative care and practicing case scenarios that highlight common pitfalls. Emphasize the importance of individualizing care based on comprehensive risk assessment.

2

A 68-year-old man is evaluated in pre-op clinic for elective total hip arthroplasty in 10 days for severe osteoarthritis. He has nonvalvular atrial fibrillation (CHA₂DS₂-VASc 4), hypertension, and stage 3 CKD (baseline Cr 1.6 mg/dL). He reports no prior stroke or systemic embolism. He denies chest pain or dyspnea at rest; he can climb one flight of stairs slowly, limited by hip pain.

History:

  • AF diagnosed 4 years ago; no cardioversion history
  • No mechanical valves; no rheumatic mitral stenosis
  • No recent bleeding; remote peptic ulcer 8 years ago

Physical exam:

  • BP 132/76 mm Hg, HR 78 irregularly irregular, SpO₂ 98% RA
  • No murmurs; lungs clear; no edema

Pertinent studies:

  • Hgb 13.2 g/dL, platelets 210k/µL
  • INR 1.1, aPTT normal
  • Cr 1.6 mg/dL (eGFR ~42 mL/min/1.73 m²)
  • ECG: atrial fibrillation, no ischemic changes

Current medications:

  • Apixaban 5 mg BID
  • Metoprolol succinate 50 mg daily
  • Lisinopril 20 mg daily
  • Atorvastatin 40 mg nightly

The orthopedic surgeon anticipates moderate-to-high bleeding risk. Which strategy best manages anticoagulation around surgery?

Stop apixaban 48 hours pre-op, bridge UFH

Stop apixaban 48 hours pre-op, no bridging

Stop apixaban 7 days pre-op, no bridging

Stop apixaban 24 hours pre-op, bridge LMWH

Continue apixaban through surgery without interruption

Explanation

This question tests USMLE Step 2 CK perioperative management skills, specifically the ability to optimize patients preoperatively and manage perioperative risks. Perioperative management involves evaluating surgical risk, optimizing medical conditions, and planning for potential complications. In this vignette, the patient presents with nonvalvular atrial fibrillation on apixaban, stage 3 CKD, and is undergoing elective hip arthroplasty with moderate-to-high bleeding risk, requiring careful anticoagulation interruption without bridging due to moderate thromboembolic risk. The correct choice, B, is supported by ACC/AHA guidelines for perioperative anticoagulation in patients on DOACs, addressing the patient's need for safe drug clearance given reduced renal function. A common distractor, D, fails because it unnecessarily adds bridging with LMWH, often due to overestimation of thromboembolic risk in nonvalvular AF without recent events. Effective teaching strategies include reviewing current guidelines for perioperative care and practicing case scenarios that highlight common pitfalls. Emphasize the importance of individualizing care based on comprehensive risk assessment.

3

A 76-year-old man with prior MI and stable angina is scheduled for elective abdominal aortic aneurysm repair. He takes metoprolol chronically. On the morning of surgery, a nurse asks whether to administer his beta-blocker.

Physical exam:

  • BP 118/68 mm Hg, HR 58
  • No wheezes; no signs of decompensated heart failure

Pertinent studies:

  • ECG: sinus bradycardia, old inferior infarct

Current medications:

  • Metoprolol
  • Aspirin
  • Atorvastatin
  • Isosorbide mononitrate

Which medication should be adjusted or discontinued prior to surgery?

Continue metoprolol through the perioperative period

Give metoprolol only if HR exceeds 100

Replace metoprolol with clonidine on surgery day

Stop metoprolol 7 days before surgery

Hold metoprolol to avoid intraoperative hypotension

Explanation

This question tests USMLE Step 2 CK perioperative management skills, specifically the ability to optimize patients preoperatively and manage perioperative risks. Perioperative management involves evaluating surgical risk, optimizing medical conditions, and planning for potential complications. In this vignette, the patient presents with prior MI on chronic metoprolol, requiring continuation to prevent withdrawal effects during major surgery. The correct choice, B, is supported by ACC/AHA guidelines for perioperative beta-blocker management, addressing the patient's cardiovascular stability. A common distractor, A, fails because it risks rebound tachycardia, often due to fear of bradycardia without evidence of decompensation. Effective teaching strategies include reviewing current guidelines for perioperative care and practicing case scenarios that highlight common pitfalls. Emphasize the importance of individualizing care based on comprehensive risk assessment.

4

A 69-year-old man is scheduled for elective hip replacement. He has atrial fibrillation and takes rivaroxaban. He also takes amiodarone and has normal renal function. The surgeon plans spinal anesthesia.

Physical exam:

  • BP 124/72 mm Hg, HR 68 irregular

Pertinent labs:

  • Cr 0.9 mg/dL
  • Hgb 14.0 g/dL, platelets 200k/µL

Current medications:

  • Rivaroxaban 20 mg nightly
  • Amiodarone
  • Amlodipine

Which medication should be adjusted or discontinued prior to surgery?

Continue rivaroxaban; perform spinal anesthesia

Stop rivaroxaban 12 hours before spinal anesthesia

Stop rivaroxaban 72 hours before spinal anesthesia

Stop rivaroxaban; bridge therapeutic LMWH until surgery

Switch rivaroxaban to aspirin 48 hours pre-op

Explanation

This question tests USMLE Step 2 CK perioperative management skills, specifically the ability to optimize patients preoperatively and manage perioperative risks. Perioperative management involves evaluating surgical risk, optimizing medical conditions, and planning for potential complications. In this vignette, the patient presents with atrial fibrillation on rivaroxaban and amiodarone, requiring extended hold before spinal anesthesia for hip replacement. The correct choice, A, is supported by ASRA guidelines for neuraxial procedures, addressing the patient's risk of spinal hematoma with drug interactions. A common distractor, B, fails because it provides insufficient hold time for high-risk anesthesia, often due to applying standard DOAC intervals. Effective teaching strategies include reviewing current guidelines for perioperative care and practicing case scenarios that highlight common pitfalls. Emphasize the importance of individualizing care based on comprehensive risk assessment.

5

A 67-year-old man is scheduled for elective hip replacement. He has atrial fibrillation on warfarin and a mechanical mitral valve placed 3 years ago. No recent bleeding.

Physical exam:

  • BP 126/70 mm Hg, HR 74 irregular
  • Mechanical click present

Pertinent labs:

  • INR 3.1 today
  • Platelets 230k/µL, Cr 1.0 mg/dL

Current medications:

  • Warfarin
  • Metoprolol

What is the most appropriate strategy for perioperative anticoagulation management?

Hold warfarin 2 days; give oral vitamin K

Hold warfarin 5 days; bridge therapeutic heparin

Switch warfarin to clopidogrel until after surgery

Hold warfarin 5 days; no bridging anticoagulation

Continue warfarin; proceed if INR under 3.5

Explanation

This question tests USMLE Step 2 CK perioperative management skills, specifically the ability to optimize patients preoperatively and manage perioperative risks. Perioperative management involves evaluating surgical risk, optimizing medical conditions, and planning for potential complications. In this vignette, the patient presents with mechanical mitral valve on warfarin, requiring bridging for high thromboembolic risk during elective surgery. The correct choice, C, is supported by ACC/AHA guidelines for mechanical valves, addressing the patient's need for uninterrupted anticoagulation. A common distractor, A, fails because it omits bridging, often due to underestimating embolism risk in prosthetic valves. Effective teaching strategies include reviewing current guidelines for perioperative care and practicing case scenarios that highlight common pitfalls. Emphasize the importance of individualizing care based on comprehensive risk assessment.

6

Which of the following is the most appropriate antibiotic prophylaxis for this patient?

Cefazolin administered 30 minutes before skin incision

No antibiotic prophylaxis is necessary

Vancomycin administered 2 hours before skin incision

Metronidazole administered at the time of induction of anesthesia

Explanation

Laparoscopic cholecystectomy is a clean-contaminated procedure, and surgical site infection (SSI) prophylaxis is recommended. The most common organisms are skin flora and enteric gram-negatives. Cefazolin, a first-generation cephalosporin, provides excellent coverage against these organisms and is the standard of care. It should be administered within 60 minutes of skin incision to ensure adequate tissue levels. Vancomycin is reserved for patients with a severe beta-lactam allergy or high risk for MRSA. Metronidazole alone provides inadequate coverage. Withholding prophylaxis would increase the risk of SSI.

7

Which of the following is the most effective strategy to prevent postoperative nausea and vomiting (PONV) in this patient?

Ensuring adequate postoperative hydration with intravenous fluids

Prescribing prochlorperazine to be taken on the morning of surgery

Using a multimodal approach with a scopolamine patch, dexamethasone, and ondansetron

Administering ondansetron as needed in the recovery room

Explanation

This patient has multiple risk factors for PONV (female, non-smoker, history of PONV/motion sickness, major abdominal surgery), placing her at high risk. The most effective strategy for high-risk patients is a multimodal prophylactic approach, using multiple antiemetics from different pharmacologic classes that act on different receptors. A combination of a scopolamine patch (anticholinergic), dexamethasone (corticosteroid), and ondansetron (5-HT3 antagonist) is a powerful preventative regimen. Administering medication 'as needed' is treatment, not prevention. Hydration is supportive but not a primary prophylactic measure. A single agent is less effective than combination therapy.

8

Which of the following is the most important intraoperative measure to reduce this patient's risk of a surgical site infection?

Maintaining patient normothermia with a forced-air warming blanket

Administering a second dose of cefazolin 3 hours into the procedure

Using chlorhexidine-alcohol for skin preparation

Maintaining strict glycemic control with an insulin infusion

Explanation

While antibiotic redosing, appropriate skin preparation, and maintaining normothermia are all important components of SSI prevention bundles, perioperative hyperglycemia is a major independent and modifiable risk factor for SSI, particularly in orthopedic and cardiac surgery. Elevated blood glucose impairs neutrophil function and promotes bacterial growth. For this patient with known diabetes and preoperative hyperglycemia, maintaining strict intraoperative glycemic control (e.g., target <180-200 mg/dL) with an insulin infusion is the most critical intervention to reduce his infection risk.

9

Which of the following is the most appropriate initial step in managing his pain?

Administer a one-time dose of intravenous ketorolac

Administer small, frequent intravenous doses of morphine

Start a patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) pump

Discharge him from PACU with a prescription for oral hydrocodone

Explanation

The patient is experiencing severe acute postoperative pain (8/10). The most appropriate initial step is to gain rapid control of the pain using a titratable, short-acting intravenous opioid like morphine or fentanyl. Administering small, frequent doses allows for titration to effect while monitoring for adverse effects like respiratory depression. Ketorolac alone is unlikely to be sufficient for severe pain. A PCA pump is an excellent tool for managing pain after initial control is achieved, but the first step is to treat the severe pain with titrated boluses. Discharging the patient with uncontrolled pain is inappropriate.

10

To maximally reduce his risk of postoperative pulmonary complications, what is the minimum recommended period for smoking cessation before his surgery?

4 weeks

48 hours

12 weeks

1 week

Explanation

While any duration of smoking cessation before surgery is beneficial (cessation for >48 hours decreases carboxyhemoglobin levels and improves tissue oxygenation), a period of at least 4 weeks is recommended to achieve a significant reduction in postoperative pulmonary complications. This duration allows for improved mucociliary clearance, decreased sputum production, and improved immune function. An 8-week period is associated with even greater benefits, but 4 weeks is the most commonly cited minimum for substantial risk reduction.

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