Acid–Base And Electrolyte Emergencies
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USMLE Step 2 CK › Acid–Base And Electrolyte Emergencies
A 44-year-old woman presents 36 hours after thyroidectomy with tingling and muscle spasms. She has stridor and is anxious. Labs:
| Test | Result |
|---|---|
| ABG | pH 7.46, PaCO2 33 mm Hg, HCO3− 23 mEq/L |
| Ionized Ca2+ | 0.78 mmol/L |
| K+ | 4.1 mEq/L |
| Mg2+ | 1.8 mg/dL |
Time-sensitive context: airway symptoms are worsening, and IV access is available.
Which of the following is the most appropriate initial treatment for this electrolyte imbalance?
Oral sodium polystyrene administration
Fluid restriction and observation
IV calcium gluconate administration
IV insulin with dextrose administration
Oral calcium carbonate administration
Explanation
This question tests the ability to diagnose and manage acid-base and electrolyte emergencies in critical care settings. Understanding acid-base balance is critical for managing patients with metabolic acidosis and alkalosis, as well as electrolyte imbalances like hyperkalemia or hyponatremia. In this vignette, the patient's symptoms and lab results provide crucial clues for identifying the underlying condition. The correct answer, choice A, is justified by the acute severe hypocalcemia causing laryngospasm and stridor, requiring immediate IV calcium to stabilize neuromuscular function. Choice B is incorrect due to oral calcium being insufficient for rapid correction in emergent airway-compromising symptoms. To improve student understanding, emphasize the importance of correlating clinical symptoms with laboratory findings and encourage the use of diagnostic algorithms to guide management decisions.
Which of the following is the most appropriate immediate management?
Administer a 100 mL bolus of 3% hypertonic saline
Administer demeclocycline
Initiate fluid restriction to 800 mL/day
Administer intravenous 0.9% saline at 150 mL/hr
Explanation
This patient presents with severe, symptomatic hyponatremia (seizure), likely due to the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) from her small cell lung cancer. In a patient with severe neurologic symptoms such as seizures or coma, the immediate goal is to rapidly increase the serum sodium to alleviate cerebral edema. This is achieved with an intravenous bolus of 3% hypertonic saline. Fluid restriction, normal saline, and demeclocycline are treatments for chronic or asymptomatic hyponatremia and are not appropriate for this acute emergency.
Which of the following is the most appropriate management?
Administer intravenous potassium chloride at 40 mEq/hr via a central line
Add spironolactone to his regimen
Administer intravenous potassium chloride at 10 mEq/hr via a peripheral line
Administer oral potassium chloride tablets
Explanation
The patient has severe, symptomatic hypokalemia (potassium < 2.5 mEq/L) with ECG changes, which is a medical emergency requiring intravenous potassium replacement. Oral replacement is too slow for this acuity. The standard safe rate for IV potassium replacement via a peripheral line is 10 mEq/hr to avoid venous irritation and cardiac toxicity. Rates higher than 10 mEq/hr (up to 20-40 mEq/hr) require a central line and continuous cardiac monitoring, but 10 mEq/hr is the most appropriate initial choice for urgent but controlled repletion. Spironolactone would be for long-term management, not acute replacement.
Which of the following is the most appropriate intervention?
Administer intravenous 0.9% saline
Administer desmopressin
Decrease the protein content of her enteral feeds
Administer intravenous 5% dextrose in water (D5W)
Explanation
This patient has hypernatremia due to a net water deficit, likely from ongoing insensible losses and hypotonic gastrointestinal losses (diarrhea) without adequate free water replacement. The treatment for hypernatremia is to replace the free water deficit. Intravenous 5% dextrose in water (D5W) is effectively free water, as the dextrose is rapidly metabolized, and is the appropriate fluid for correction. 0.9% saline would worsen the hypernatremia. Desmopressin is used for central diabetes insipidus, which is not suggested here. Decreasing protein might help with urea-induced osmotic diuresis, but the primary issue is a water deficit that needs correction.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?
Administer intravenous calcium gluconate
Switch to oral potassium supplementation
Check and replete magnesium levels
Administer a higher dose of intravenous potassium
Explanation
This patient has refractory hypokalemia, which is persistent hypokalemia despite adequate potassium replacement. In patients with a history of alcohol use disorder, concurrent hypomagnesemia is extremely common. Magnesium is a cofactor for the renal outer medullary potassium (ROMK) channels, which are responsible for potassium reabsorption. In the setting of hypomagnesemia, these channels are dysfunctional, leading to persistent renal potassium wasting. Therefore, repletion of magnesium is necessary to allow for effective correction of the hypokalemia.
Which of the following is the most appropriate initial intravenous fluid for this patient?
5% Dextrose in water (D5W)
0.9% Saline
Lactated Ringer's solution
0.45% Saline
Explanation
This patient has a severe metabolic alkalosis (high pH, high HCO3-) with partial respiratory compensation (high PaCO2). This is a saline-responsive or 'contraction' alkalosis, caused by the loss of hydrogen and chloride ions from vomiting and subsequent volume depletion, which stimulates bicarbonate reabsorption in the kidney. The treatment is to correct the volume and chloride deficits. 0.9% saline (normal saline) is the fluid of choice as it repletes both volume and chloride, which allows the kidneys to excrete the excess bicarbonate and correct the alkalosis. Lactated Ringer's contains lactate, which is converted to bicarbonate, and would worsen the alkalosis. D5W and 0.45% saline are hypotonic and would not adequately restore volume or correct the chloride deficit.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?
Increase the respiratory rate on the ventilator
Increase the PEEP on the ventilator
Increase the tidal volume to 8 mL/kg
Administer an intravenous sodium bicarbonate drip
Explanation
The patient has an acute respiratory acidosis (low pH, high PaCO2), likely due to a decrease in his spontaneous respiratory drive from increased sedation, leading to decreased minute ventilation. In a patient on volume-control ventilation, the most direct way to increase minute ventilation (and thus CO2 removal) is to increase the respiratory rate. Increasing the tidal volume above 6 mL/kg is generally avoided in ARDS (lung-protective strategy). Increasing PEEP primarily affects oxygenation, not ventilation. Sodium bicarbonate does not address the underlying problem of inadequate ventilation.
Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment?
Fomepizole and hemodialysis
Methylene blue
Sodium bicarbonate and insulin
N-acetylcysteine
Explanation
The patient has a severe high-anion-gap metabolic acidosis (Anion Gap = 140 - [100 + 7] = 33). The fluorescence of urine under a Wood's lamp is a classic clue for ethylene glycol (antifreeze) ingestion, as fluorescein is often added to these products. Ethylene glycol is metabolized by alcohol dehydrogenase to toxic metabolites (glycolic acid, oxalic acid) that cause acidosis and renal failure. The definitive treatment is to block this metabolism with an alcohol dehydrogenase inhibitor like fomepizole and to remove the parent alcohol and its toxic metabolites via hemodialysis. N-acetylcysteine is for acetaminophen toxicity. Methylene blue is for methemoglobinemia.
Laboratory studies are most likely to show a severe deficiency of which of the following electrolytes?
Sodium
Phosphate
Chloride
Calcium
Explanation
This patient is experiencing refeeding syndrome, a life-threatening condition that occurs when nutrition is reintroduced in severely malnourished individuals. The sudden influx of carbohydrates stimulates insulin release, which drives phosphate, potassium, and magnesium into cells for glycolysis and ATP production. The resulting acute and profound hypophosphatemia is the hallmark of the syndrome and can cause widespread organ dysfunction, including respiratory muscle weakness leading to respiratory failure, cardiac failure, and rhabdomyolysis.
In addition to broad-spectrum antibiotics and continued hemodynamic support, which of the following interventions is most critical to reversing his metabolic acidosis?
Urgent urologic consultation for source control
Starting continuous renal replacement therapy
Administering methylene blue for vasoplegia
Initiating a sodium bicarbonate infusion
Explanation
The patient's severe lactic acidosis is a direct consequence of tissue hypoperfusion caused by septic shock. The three mainstays of sepsis management are early antibiotics, hemodynamic resuscitation (fluids and vasopressors), and source control. In this case of urosepsis, an obstruction (e.g., kidney stone, prostatic hypertrophy) may be causing ongoing infection and bacteremia. Identifying and draining the source of infection is critical to breaking the inflammatory cycle, improving hemodynamics, and ultimately allowing the clearance of lactate and correction of the acidosis. While the other interventions might be considered, none are as fundamental as source control in reversing the underlying pathophysiology.