Electrical Signaling in Neurons (4C)

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MCAT Chemical and Physical Foundations of Biological Systems › Electrical Signaling in Neurons (4C)

Questions 1 - 10
1

In a focused experiment on action potential propagation, a single myelinated motor neuron is stimulated at the axon hillock. Resting membrane potential is $V_m=-70\ \text{mV}$ and threshold is $-55\ \text{mV}$. Voltage-gated Na$^+$ channels open rapidly when threshold is reached, and voltage-gated K$^+$ channels open with a delay to repolarize the membrane. The axon is partially demyelinated over a 2-mm segment, increasing membrane capacitance in that segment from $C_m=1.0\ \mu\text{F}/\text{cm}^2$ to $2.5\ \mu\text{F}/\text{cm}^2$ while leaving ion channel densities unchanged. Assume intracellular and extracellular ion concentrations remain constant during a single spike and that the neuron is otherwise healthy. Which outcome is most consistent with the effect of the demyelinated segment on action potential propagation along the axon?

Propagation slows because increased $C_m$ requires more charge to change $V_m$, reducing the rate of depolarization across that segment

Propagation is unchanged because myelin affects only neurotransmitter release at axon terminals, not axonal conduction

Propagation reverses direction because delayed K$^+$ channel opening causes depolarization to travel back toward the soma

Propagation speeds up because increased $C_m$ stores more charge, allowing the next node to reach threshold sooner

Explanation

This question tests understanding of how membrane capacitance affects action potential propagation speed. In electrical signaling, neurons propagate action potentials through sequential depolarization of membrane segments, where the rate depends on how quickly each segment can reach threshold voltage. In the demyelinated segment, increased capacitance from 1.0 to 2.5 μF/cm² means more charge must accumulate to achieve the same voltage change (Q = CV). Since the current from the previous segment remains the same but more charge is needed, it takes longer to depolarize this segment to threshold, slowing propagation. Choice B incorrectly assumes that storing more charge speeds propagation, but capacitance actually acts as a barrier to rapid voltage changes. To approach similar problems, remember that higher capacitance requires more time to charge, analogous to filling a larger bucket with the same water flow rate.

2

A researcher models resting membrane potential changes in a single neuron as extracellular K$^+$ is increased. Assume the membrane at rest is primarily permeable to K$^+$ via leak channels, and $V_m$ approximately follows the Nernst potential for K$^+$: $$E_K=\frac{RT}{zF}\ln\left(\frac{K^+\text{out}}{K^+\text{in}}\right)$$ with $z=+1$, $R=8.314\ \text{J/mol·K}$, $T=310\ \text{K}$, and $F=96485\ \text{C/mol}$. Initially, $K^+\text{in}=140\ \text{mM}$ and $K^+\text{out}=4\ \text{mM}$; then $K^+\text{out}$ is raised to $12\ \text{mM}$ while $K^+\text{in}$ is unchanged. Which change is most consistent with this manipulation?

The resting membrane potential becomes less negative (depolarizes) because $E_K$ shifts to a higher value

The resting membrane potential is unchanged because only Na$^+$ concentration determines $V_m$ at rest

The resting membrane potential becomes more negative (hyperpolarizes) because K$^+$ efflux increases

The resting membrane potential becomes more positive because K$^+$ flows into the cell until $V_m$ reaches $E_{\text{Na}}$

Explanation

This question tests understanding of how ion concentrations determine membrane potential through the Nernst equation. In electrical signaling, the resting membrane potential of neurons primarily depends on K+ permeability and follows the K+ equilibrium potential (EK). When extracellular K+ increases from 4 mM to 12 mM while intracellular K+ remains at 140 mM, the concentration ratio [K+]out/[K+]in increases from 4/140 to 12/140. According to the Nernst equation, this makes EK less negative (depolarizes) because the natural log of a larger ratio yields a less negative value. Choice B incorrectly predicts hyperpolarization, but increasing external K+ always depolarizes by reducing the K+ concentration gradient. To solve Nernst equation problems, remember that increasing external cation concentration or decreasing internal cation concentration makes the equilibrium potential more positive.

3

At a single excitatory synapse, neurotransmitter binds postsynaptic ligand-gated cation channels that are permeable to both Na$^+$ and K$^+$. The reversal potential for this mixed cation conductance is approximately $0\ \text{mV}$. The postsynaptic neuron is initially at $-70\ \text{mV}$. If these ligand-gated channels open briefly, which change is most consistent with the expected postsynaptic current direction and voltage change?

Parameters: $V_m=-70\ \text{mV}$ initially; channel reversal potential $E_{\text{rev}}\approx 0\ \text{mV}$.

Net outward positive current (K$^+$ efflux) dominates at $-70\ \text{mV}$, hyperpolarizing the cell toward $-90\ \text{mV}$.

A presynaptic action potential is generated because ligand-gated channels on the postsynaptic cell trigger presynaptic Na$^+$ channel opening.

Net inward positive current dominates at $-70\ \text{mV}$, depolarizing the cell toward $0\ \text{mV}$ (an EPSP).

Net inward Cl$^-$ current dominates at $-70\ \text{mV}$ because mixed cation channels primarily conduct chloride at negative voltages.

Explanation

This question tests understanding of synaptic currents and excitatory postsynaptic potentials (EPSPs). When ligand-gated channels with a reversal potential of 0 mV open at a membrane potential of -70 mV, there is a 70 mV driving force for net inward current. Since these channels are permeable to both Na+ and K+, and the reversal potential (0 mV) is between ENa (+60 mV) and EK (-90 mV), the net effect is inward positive current that depolarizes the cell toward 0 mV. The correct answer (B) accurately describes this depolarization as an EPSP. Answer A incorrectly suggests net outward current would occur, which would require the membrane potential to be above the reversal potential. To analyze synaptic currents, always compare the membrane potential to the channel's reversal potential: current flows to drive the membrane toward the reversal potential.

4

A lab studies saltatory conduction in a single myelinated axon. Myelin increases membrane resistance and decreases membrane capacitance in internodal regions, whereas nodes of Ranvier have high densities of voltage-gated Na$^+$ channels. The axon is stimulated at the hillock to initiate an action potential. In one condition, a demyelinating insult reduces myelin integrity along the internodes without directly affecting Na$^+$ channel function at the nodes. Assume the axon diameter and ion gradients are unchanged.

Which statement is most consistent with the expected effect on action potential propagation?

Conduction velocity increases because current spreads more easily across the membrane when resistance is reduced.

Propagation reverses direction because myelin determines whether Na$^+$ influx occurs at the hillock or at the terminal.

Conduction velocity decreases because increased internodal capacitance and decreased resistance increase current leak and slow depolarization of the next node.

Synaptic transmission is enhanced because demyelination increases Ca$^{2+}$ influx at the postsynaptic membrane.

Explanation

This question tests understanding of saltatory conduction in myelinated axons. Myelin acts as an insulator that increases membrane resistance and decreases capacitance in internodal regions, forcing current to jump between nodes of Ranvier where sodium channels are concentrated. When myelin is damaged, the internodal membrane resistance decreases and capacitance increases, allowing more current to leak across the membrane between nodes. This current leak means less depolarizing current reaches the next node, slowing the rate of depolarization and reducing conduction velocity. Option A correctly identifies these effects, while option B incorrectly suggests reduced resistance speeds conduction, option C misunderstands action potential directionality, and option D confuses axonal and synaptic mechanisms. The principle is that myelin integrity is crucial for maintaining fast conduction velocity through efficient current flow between nodes.

5

A single neuron is studied under voltage clamp to isolate driving force and ion current direction. The membrane potential is held at $V_m=-40\ \text{mV}$. A ligand-gated channel selective for Na$^+$ opens briefly. Assume $E_{\text{Na}}=+60\ \text{mV}$ and that channel opening increases Na$^+$ conductance without changing $E_{\text{Na}}$. Which current direction is most consistent with Na$^+$ channel opening at this holding potential?

Inward Na$^+$ current because $V_m<E_{\text{Na}}$, driving Na$^+$ into the cell

Outward Na$^+$ current because $V_m$ is negative, pushing Na$^+$ out of the cell

Inward K$^+$ current because opening Na$^+$ channels causes K$^+$ to enter to maintain electroneutrality

No Na$^+$ current because Na$^+$ moves only when voltage-gated (not ligand-gated) channels open

Explanation

This question tests understanding of driving force and current direction in electrical signaling. The driving force for any ion equals the difference between membrane potential and that ion's equilibrium potential (Vm - Eion). For Na+ at Vm = -40 mV with ENa = +60 mV, the driving force is -40 - (+60) = -100 mV. This negative driving force means Na+ flows inward (into the cell) when channels open, as the electrochemical gradient favors Na+ entry. The current is inward because both the electrical gradient (negative inside attracts positive Na+) and concentration gradient (higher Na+ outside) drive Na+ into the cell. Choice A incorrectly assumes negative Vm pushes Na+ out, but driving force direction depends on the difference between Vm and ENa, not Vm alone. To determine current direction, calculate driving force: negative values produce inward current for cations, positive values produce outward current.

6

A study examines synaptic transmission at a single chemical synapse between a presynaptic neuron and a postsynaptic neuron. An action potential arriving at the presynaptic terminal opens voltage-gated Ca$^{2+}$ channels, triggering vesicle fusion and release of an excitatory neurotransmitter. The postsynaptic membrane contains ligand-gated cation channels (permeable to Na$^+$ and K$^+$) that open upon neurotransmitter binding. Assume $E_{\text{Na}}=+60\ \text{mV}$, $E_{\text{K}}=-90\ \text{mV}$, and the postsynaptic resting potential is $-70\ \text{mV}$. Which outcome is most consistent with neurotransmitter release at this synapse?

The postsynaptic response occurs only if neurotransmitter binds presynaptic receptors to open presynaptic Na$^+$ channels

The postsynaptic membrane depolarizes because net cation current drives $V_m$ toward a value between $E_{\text{Na}}$ and $E_{\text{K}}$

The postsynaptic membrane hyperpolarizes because Na$^+$ exits the cell through ligand-gated channels at rest

Neurotransmitter release directly opens postsynaptic voltage-gated Ca$^{2+}$ channels, producing an action potential without a graded potential

Explanation

This question tests understanding of excitatory synaptic transmission and equilibrium potentials. In electrical signaling between neurons, neurotransmitter binding opens ligand-gated channels that allow specific ions to flow according to their electrochemical gradients. When channels permeable to both Na+ and K+ open, the membrane potential moves toward a weighted average of their equilibrium potentials (ENa = +60 mV and EK = -90 mV), which lies between these values. Since the resting potential is -70 mV, opening these channels causes net positive charge influx (more Na+ enters than K+ exits), resulting in depolarization. Choice A incorrectly states Na+ exits at rest, but the negative membrane potential and positive ENa drive Na+ inward. To solve similar problems, identify which ions can flow through opened channels and compare the membrane potential to each ion's equilibrium potential to determine current direction.

7

An investigator studies ion channel dynamics in a single neuron by selectively blocking voltage-gated Na$^+$ channels with a reversible drug while leaving K$^+$ channels unaffected. The neuron has resting potential $-70\ \text{mV}$ and threshold $-55\ \text{mV}$. A brief depolarizing current injection is applied at the axon hillock that would normally elicit an action potential. Assume the injected current and membrane resistance are unchanged by the drug. Which change is most consistent with Na$^+$ channel blockade?

The neuron hyperpolarizes immediately to $E_{\text{Na}}$ because Na$^+$ can no longer enter the cell

The neuron fails to generate a normal action potential because the rapid inward Na$^+$ current needed for the upstroke is reduced

The neuron fires an action potential with a larger overshoot because K$^+$ channels now dominate the rising phase

The neuron still fires normally because synaptic neurotransmitter release compensates for the missing Na$^+$ current

Explanation

This question tests understanding of voltage-gated ion channel roles in action potential generation. Electrical signaling in neurons requires rapid Na+ influx through voltage-gated channels to generate the characteristic fast upstroke of an action potential. When these Na+ channels are blocked, the depolarizing current injection can still move the membrane potential positive, but without the positive feedback of Na+ channel opening, the membrane cannot generate the explosive depolarization that defines an action potential. The neuron fails to fire because the rapid inward Na+ current, which normally drives the membrane from threshold (-55 mV) to peak (+30-40 mV), is absent. Choice A incorrectly suggests K+ channels could substitute for Na+ in the rising phase, but K+ channels cause repolarization, not depolarization. To analyze ion channel contributions, remember that Na+ channels are essential for the rising phase while K+ channels drive the falling phase of action potentials.

8

A pharmacology group tests a drug that blocks presynaptic voltage-gated Ca$^{2+}$ channels at a single excitatory synapse. Presynaptic action potentials are unaffected in amplitude and timing, but Ca$^{2+}$ entry at the terminal is reduced by 80%. Neurotransmitter is stored in vesicles and released primarily via Ca$^{2+}$-triggered fusion. The postsynaptic cell expresses ligand-gated cation channels that normally generate an EPSP. Which outcome is most consistent with the drug’s effect?

EPSP amplitude decreases because less Ca$^{2+}$ entry reduces vesicle fusion and neurotransmitter release

Neurotransmitter release is unchanged because ligand-gated channels on the postsynaptic cell open presynaptic vesicles directly

EPSP amplitude increases because reduced Ca$^{2+}$ prevents K$^+$ efflux from the postsynaptic neuron

Action potential propagation reverses direction in the presynaptic axon because Ca$^{2+}$ channels determine spike polarity

Explanation

This question tests understanding of calcium's role in neurotransmitter release. In electrical signaling at synapses, voltage-gated Ca2+ channels at presynaptic terminals open during action potentials, allowing Ca2+ influx that triggers vesicle fusion and neurotransmitter release. When the drug blocks 80% of Ca2+ entry, fewer vesicles fuse with the membrane, releasing less neurotransmitter into the synaptic cleft. This reduced neurotransmitter concentration activates fewer postsynaptic receptors, generating a smaller excitatory postsynaptic potential (EPSP). Choice B incorrectly suggests Ca2+ affects postsynaptic K+ channels, but the drug specifically targets presynaptic Ca2+ channels. To approach synaptic transmission problems, trace the sequence: action potential → Ca2+ entry → vesicle fusion → neurotransmitter release → postsynaptic receptor activation → postsynaptic response.

9

In a single neuron, absolute refractory period is assessed by delivering two identical, brief suprathreshold current pulses at the axon hillock separated by varying intervals. During the spike, voltage-gated Na$^+$ channels open rapidly and then enter an inactivated state that cannot reopen until the membrane repolarizes. Voltage-gated K$^+$ channels contribute to repolarization. Which observation is most consistent with delivering the second pulse during the absolute refractory period?

A second action potential cannot be elicited because a critical fraction of Na$^+$ channels remain inactivated

A second action potential occurs but propagates backward because K$^+$ channels open first on the second pulse

A second action potential occurs with reduced amplitude because fewer vesicles are available for neurotransmitter release

A second action potential is larger because Na$^+$ channels have increased conductance after the first spike

Explanation

This question tests understanding of the absolute refractory period in neuronal electrical signaling. During an action potential, voltage-gated Na+ channels undergo a cycle of closed → open → inactivated states, and inactivated channels cannot reopen until the membrane repolarizes sufficiently. The absolute refractory period occurs when most Na+ channels remain inactivated, preventing action potential generation regardless of stimulus strength. A second suprathreshold stimulus during this period fails to elicit an action potential because insufficient Na+ channels are available to generate the rapid depolarization required. Choice D incorrectly suggests Na+ conductance increases after a spike, but channel inactivation actually reduces available conductance. To understand refractory periods, remember that Na+ channel inactivation creates an absolute refractory period (no action potential possible) followed by a relative refractory period (higher threshold required).

10

A pharmacology experiment tests a toxin that prevents inactivation of voltage-gated Na$^+$ channels in a single axon but does not directly affect voltage-gated K$^+$ channels. The axon is stimulated to fire one action potential. Normally, Na$^+$ channels open rapidly and then inactivate, while K$^+$ channels open more slowly to repolarize the membrane.

Which outcome is most consistent with the effect of preventing Na$^+$ channel inactivation on the action potential waveform?

Assume ion gradients remain roughly constant over the time scale of a single spike.

The action potential becomes smaller because Na$^+$ influx reverses and becomes outward at positive voltages.

The action potential upstroke is abolished because Na$^+$ channels must inactivate to open.

Repolarization occurs faster because Na$^+$ inactivation normally delays K$^+$ channel opening.

The membrane remains depolarized longer because persistent Na$^+$ influx opposes repolarizing K$^+$ efflux.

Explanation

The skill being tested is the effect of sodium channel inactivation on action potential duration. In neurons, electrical signaling during action potentials involves sodium channels opening for depolarization and then inactivating, while potassium channels open for repolarization. In this scenario, preventing sodium channel inactivation allows persistent sodium influx, prolonging depolarization as it opposes the repolarizing potassium efflux. This results in a longer-lasting positive membrane potential, as in choice B. Choice A is incorrect because the upstroke requires sodium channel opening, not inactivation, which normally limits duration. For similar toxin effects, compare the altered waveform to normal phases and ion currents. A useful strategy is to recall that channel states (open, inactivated) dictate spike shape, so disruptions predict specific changes like extended plateaus.

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