Injuries and Disorders - Anatomy
Card 0 of 888
The ankle jerk (Achilles) reflex tests which nerve root?
The ankle jerk (Achilles) reflex tests which nerve root?
Tap to see back →
The ankle jerk (Achilles) reflex tests the nerve root S1, S2. Biceps reflex tests roots C5, C6. Brachioradialis tests C5, C6, C7. Triceps reflex tests C6, C7, C8 nerve roots. Patellar (knee jerk) reflex tests the L2, L3, L4 nerve roots. The hamstring reflex tests nerve roots L5 and S1.
The ankle jerk (Achilles) reflex tests the nerve root S1, S2. Biceps reflex tests roots C5, C6. Brachioradialis tests C5, C6, C7. Triceps reflex tests C6, C7, C8 nerve roots. Patellar (knee jerk) reflex tests the L2, L3, L4 nerve roots. The hamstring reflex tests nerve roots L5 and S1.
The patellar (knee jerk) reflex tests which nerve root?
The patellar (knee jerk) reflex tests which nerve root?
Tap to see back →
The ankle jerk (Achilles) reflex tests the nerve root S1, S2. Biceps reflex tests roots C5, C6. Brachioradialis reflex tests C5, C6, C7. Triceps reflex tests C6, C7, C8 nerve roots. Patellar (knee jerk) reflex tests the L2, L3, L4 nerve roots.
The ankle jerk (Achilles) reflex tests the nerve root S1, S2. Biceps reflex tests roots C5, C6. Brachioradialis reflex tests C5, C6, C7. Triceps reflex tests C6, C7, C8 nerve roots. Patellar (knee jerk) reflex tests the L2, L3, L4 nerve roots.
Which of the following cells is stimulated to release histamine?
Which of the following cells is stimulated to release histamine?
Tap to see back →
Mast cell functions in allergic responses by release histamine and other chemicals that promote inflammation. Macrophages are part of the innate immune system and function to engulf and remove debris. Neutrophils are also part of the innate immune system and have macrophagic properties, especially when fighting bacterial infection. Natural killer cells bind to and destroy pathogens without the use of antigens.
Mast cell functions in allergic responses by release histamine and other chemicals that promote inflammation. Macrophages are part of the innate immune system and function to engulf and remove debris. Neutrophils are also part of the innate immune system and have macrophagic properties, especially when fighting bacterial infection. Natural killer cells bind to and destroy pathogens without the use of antigens.
Which of the following is a sign of inflammation?
Which of the following is a sign of inflammation?
Tap to see back →
Calor—or redness—is associated with increased blood flow, which can result from inflammation. During an inflammation response, histamine release results in vasodilation and increased bloodflow, which can cause the infalmmed area to appear red.
Calor—or redness—is associated with increased blood flow, which can result from inflammation. During an inflammation response, histamine release results in vasodilation and increased bloodflow, which can cause the infalmmed area to appear red.
You are looking at your patient's EKG, and you suspect he may be experiencing a first degree atrioventricular (AV) block. What EKG findings would lead you to this conclusion?
You are looking at your patient's EKG, and you suspect he may be experiencing a first degree atrioventricular (AV) block. What EKG findings would lead you to this conclusion?
Tap to see back →
A prolonged P-R interval, that does not get progressively longer is typical of a type I A-V block.
A prolonged P-R interval, that does not get progressively longer is typical of a type I A-V block.
When this protein is found in the blood, it can be indicative of a myocardial infarction.
When this protein is found in the blood, it can be indicative of a myocardial infarction.
Tap to see back →
Troponin is a complex of proteins that play an important role in skeletal and cardiac muscle contraction. Troponin is released into the bloodstream when there is damage to the heart. This is a common diagnostic laboratory test for patients with heart problems or chest pain.
Troponin is a complex of proteins that play an important role in skeletal and cardiac muscle contraction. Troponin is released into the bloodstream when there is damage to the heart. This is a common diagnostic laboratory test for patients with heart problems or chest pain.
Which of the following terms describes menstruation that is excessive in amount or duration?
Which of the following terms describes menstruation that is excessive in amount or duration?
Tap to see back →
Amenorrhea: no appearance or cessation of menstruation
Polymenorrhea: menstruation less then 21 day interval
Metrorrhagia: intercyclic or irregular menstruation
Dysmenorrhea: intermittent, cramping pain accompanying menstruation
Amenorrhea: no appearance or cessation of menstruation
Polymenorrhea: menstruation less then 21 day interval
Metrorrhagia: intercyclic or irregular menstruation
Dysmenorrhea: intermittent, cramping pain accompanying menstruation
What percentage of blood is plasma?
What percentage of blood is plasma?
Tap to see back →
Blood is around 55% plasma, 45% erythrocytes (red blood cells), and less than 1% of leukocytes and platelets.
Blood is around 55% plasma, 45% erythrocytes (red blood cells), and less than 1% of leukocytes and platelets.
A 27-year old male comes to a clinic complaining that he has difficulty climbing stairs and getting up from a sitting position. He recently recovered from a bout of diarrhea and then noticed that his feet were weak and that he was having trouble walking. What is responsible for this man’s condition?
A 27-year old male comes to a clinic complaining that he has difficulty climbing stairs and getting up from a sitting position. He recently recovered from a bout of diarrhea and then noticed that his feet were weak and that he was having trouble walking. What is responsible for this man’s condition?
Tap to see back →
This man is suffering from acute inflammatory demyelinating polyradiculoneuropathy (AIDP), also known as Guillain-Barre Syndrome. As suggested by the name, the pathology is due to demyelination.
AIDP is a symmetric ascending paralysis that begins in the feet and ascends to the trunk and upper extremities. The paralysis will often impair breathing and frequently affects the facial nerve as well. This disease commonly follows an illness, especially infectious diarrhea caused by Campylobacter jejuni. The immune response to foreign antigens mistakenly targets host nerve tissues, specifically the myelin sheaths.
Inhibition of ACh release into synaptic cleft can also result in weakness, but describes the effects of botulinum toxin in botulism. The toxin is made by the bacteria Clostridium botulinum as a foodborne illness. Patients experience weakness, trouble seeing, fatigue, and possible speech difficulties. Muscular weakness may follow. Diagnosis is made by identifying the toxin in food or feces.
Blockade of action potentials is seen in conduction blockages as a result of nerve injury, such as neuropraxia, axonotmesis, or neurotmesis.
Blockade of presynaptic voltage-gated calcium channels describes Lambert-Eaton Syndrome, a presynaptic neuromuscular junction disorder characterized by muscular weakness of the limbs. It is an autoimmune condition that attacks presynaptic voltage-gated calcium channels. Proximal muscles are affected first, so patients have difficulty climbing stairs or standing up from sitting. They also may have difficulty reaching over their head or combing their hair. Diagnosis is made by EMG, which shows normal latency and conduction velocities, but small amplitudes. Rapid bursts of stimuli or exercising the muscle will lead to greatly increased amplitudes due to an influx of calcium.
Blockade of postsynaptic ACh receptors is seen in myasthenia gravis, a postsynaptic neuromuscular junction disorder very similar to Lambert-Eaton Syndrome. It is an autoimmune disorder directed against postsynaptic acetylcholine receptors and is characterized by easy fatigue. Muscles become progressively weaker with activity, so patients tend to have symptoms at the end of the day. Earliest signs include difficulty keeping the eyes open, or difficulty with chewing, speaking, or swallowing. EMG studies will show progressively decreasing amplitudes with repeated stimuli.
This man is suffering from acute inflammatory demyelinating polyradiculoneuropathy (AIDP), also known as Guillain-Barre Syndrome. As suggested by the name, the pathology is due to demyelination.
AIDP is a symmetric ascending paralysis that begins in the feet and ascends to the trunk and upper extremities. The paralysis will often impair breathing and frequently affects the facial nerve as well. This disease commonly follows an illness, especially infectious diarrhea caused by Campylobacter jejuni. The immune response to foreign antigens mistakenly targets host nerve tissues, specifically the myelin sheaths.
Inhibition of ACh release into synaptic cleft can also result in weakness, but describes the effects of botulinum toxin in botulism. The toxin is made by the bacteria Clostridium botulinum as a foodborne illness. Patients experience weakness, trouble seeing, fatigue, and possible speech difficulties. Muscular weakness may follow. Diagnosis is made by identifying the toxin in food or feces.
Blockade of action potentials is seen in conduction blockages as a result of nerve injury, such as neuropraxia, axonotmesis, or neurotmesis.
Blockade of presynaptic voltage-gated calcium channels describes Lambert-Eaton Syndrome, a presynaptic neuromuscular junction disorder characterized by muscular weakness of the limbs. It is an autoimmune condition that attacks presynaptic voltage-gated calcium channels. Proximal muscles are affected first, so patients have difficulty climbing stairs or standing up from sitting. They also may have difficulty reaching over their head or combing their hair. Diagnosis is made by EMG, which shows normal latency and conduction velocities, but small amplitudes. Rapid bursts of stimuli or exercising the muscle will lead to greatly increased amplitudes due to an influx of calcium.
Blockade of postsynaptic ACh receptors is seen in myasthenia gravis, a postsynaptic neuromuscular junction disorder very similar to Lambert-Eaton Syndrome. It is an autoimmune disorder directed against postsynaptic acetylcholine receptors and is characterized by easy fatigue. Muscles become progressively weaker with activity, so patients tend to have symptoms at the end of the day. Earliest signs include difficulty keeping the eyes open, or difficulty with chewing, speaking, or swallowing. EMG studies will show progressively decreasing amplitudes with repeated stimuli.
Multiple “sawtooth” P waves on an EKG suggest what pathology?
Multiple “sawtooth” P waves on an EKG suggest what pathology?
Tap to see back →
"Sawtooth" P waves are characteristic of atrial flutter.
"Sawtooth" P waves are characteristic of atrial flutter.
With regard to zonal anatomy of the prostate gland, where does benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH) mainly occur?
With regard to zonal anatomy of the prostate gland, where does benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH) mainly occur?
Tap to see back →
Benign prostatic hypertrophy is usually seen in the transitional zone. Most carcinomas originating in the peripheral zone. The posterior zone does not exist.
Benign prostatic hypertrophy is usually seen in the transitional zone. Most carcinomas originating in the peripheral zone. The posterior zone does not exist.
Jen has been having issues digesting gluten throughout her life. Her doctors tell her that she has celiac disease, which is an autoimmune disease that is causing her immune system to attack the brush border of her , which then prevents absorption and causes illness when she consumes gluten.
Jen has been having issues digesting gluten throughout her life. Her doctors tell her that she has celiac disease, which is an autoimmune disease that is causing her immune system to attack the brush border of her , which then prevents absorption and causes illness when she consumes gluten.
Tap to see back →
Celiac disease is an autoimmune response in which the body attacks the brush border of the small intestine and therefore prevents proper nutrient absorption. The small intestine's brush border is made of many small protrusions called villi and microvilli, which increase surface area in order to increase absorption area. Without these areas of absorption, the body cannot absorb a sufficient amount of necessary nutrients from the diet.
Celiac disease is an autoimmune response in which the body attacks the brush border of the small intestine and therefore prevents proper nutrient absorption. The small intestine's brush border is made of many small protrusions called villi and microvilli, which increase surface area in order to increase absorption area. Without these areas of absorption, the body cannot absorb a sufficient amount of necessary nutrients from the diet.
A 47-year old woman is brought by ambulance to the trauma bay after being involved in a high-speed motor vehicle collision. She is unresponsive, with a blood pressure of 78/42 and pulse 132. She is immediately intubated and breath sounds are confirmed. Her heart sounds are normal and peripheral pulses are intact. There is no obvious bleeding and two large bore IVs are started. Abdominal ultrasound reveals a fluid collection in the left upper quadrant. She continues to deteriorate and is brought emergently to the OR for exploratory laparotomy, where packing of the abdomen reveals extensive bleeding in the left upper quadrant. What do you expect is the cause of this bleeding?
A 47-year old woman is brought by ambulance to the trauma bay after being involved in a high-speed motor vehicle collision. She is unresponsive, with a blood pressure of 78/42 and pulse 132. She is immediately intubated and breath sounds are confirmed. Her heart sounds are normal and peripheral pulses are intact. There is no obvious bleeding and two large bore IVs are started. Abdominal ultrasound reveals a fluid collection in the left upper quadrant. She continues to deteriorate and is brought emergently to the OR for exploratory laparotomy, where packing of the abdomen reveals extensive bleeding in the left upper quadrant. What do you expect is the cause of this bleeding?
Tap to see back →
Blood collecting in the left upper quadrant would suggest a splenic laceration.
The spleen is one of the most commonly injured organs with blunt abdominal trauma. It can and will bleed enough to make a patient hemodynamically unstable. Ultrasound performed in the trauma bay looks at four potential spaces of fluid collection: Morrison's pouch (right upper quadrant/liver), splenorenal recess (left upper quadrant/spleen), subxiphoid (heart), and the pouch of Douglas (suprapubic/pelvis). The liver is located in the right upper quadrant of the abdomen and the spleen in the left upper quadrant
This patient's ultrasound showed fluid collection in the perisplenic space as well as extensive bleeding, which would suggest a splenic laceration as the cause of the patient's condition.
The liver is in the right upper quadrant. The right and left iliac arteries are in the right and left lower quadrants, respectively. Bladder laceration would result in fluid collection in the pelvis.
Blood collecting in the left upper quadrant would suggest a splenic laceration.
The spleen is one of the most commonly injured organs with blunt abdominal trauma. It can and will bleed enough to make a patient hemodynamically unstable. Ultrasound performed in the trauma bay looks at four potential spaces of fluid collection: Morrison's pouch (right upper quadrant/liver), splenorenal recess (left upper quadrant/spleen), subxiphoid (heart), and the pouch of Douglas (suprapubic/pelvis). The liver is located in the right upper quadrant of the abdomen and the spleen in the left upper quadrant
This patient's ultrasound showed fluid collection in the perisplenic space as well as extensive bleeding, which would suggest a splenic laceration as the cause of the patient's condition.
The liver is in the right upper quadrant. The right and left iliac arteries are in the right and left lower quadrants, respectively. Bladder laceration would result in fluid collection in the pelvis.
What is the disease caused by the parasite Giardia?
What is the disease caused by the parasite Giardia?
Tap to see back →
Giardiasis is the disease caused by the Giardia parasite. The parasite is passed through feces and can live up to several weeks outside of a host. Common symptoms of giardiasis is diarrhea, gas, stomach cramps, and dehydration. It is treated via prescription medication. Gastritis is characterized by inflammation of the stomach. In giardiasis, the intestines are affected. Gout is a rheumatoid disease and is not caused by an infectious agent. Geranium is a type of flower.
Giardiasis is the disease caused by the Giardia parasite. The parasite is passed through feces and can live up to several weeks outside of a host. Common symptoms of giardiasis is diarrhea, gas, stomach cramps, and dehydration. It is treated via prescription medication. Gastritis is characterized by inflammation of the stomach. In giardiasis, the intestines are affected. Gout is a rheumatoid disease and is not caused by an infectious agent. Geranium is a type of flower.
What causes salmonella?
What causes salmonella?
Tap to see back →
Salmonella is an illness caused by a bacterium. Salmonella is often found in raw egg or poultry. It typically presents with gastrointestinal discomfort, diarrhea, and fever. It can be treated with antibiotics, but rarely becomes serious unless it is present in the old, the young, or the immunocompromised.
Salmonella is an illness caused by a bacterium. Salmonella is often found in raw egg or poultry. It typically presents with gastrointestinal discomfort, diarrhea, and fever. It can be treated with antibiotics, but rarely becomes serious unless it is present in the old, the young, or the immunocompromised.
When a patient has true "heartburn," their heart is not actually the problem; they are suffering from Gastroesophageal Reflux Disease (GERD), also known as acid reflux. In this condition, acidic gastric contents inappropriately travel back from the stomach into the esophagus due to the faulty function of which structure?
When a patient has true "heartburn," their heart is not actually the problem; they are suffering from Gastroesophageal Reflux Disease (GERD), also known as acid reflux. In this condition, acidic gastric contents inappropriately travel back from the stomach into the esophagus due to the faulty function of which structure?
Tap to see back →
The correct answer is the lower esophageal sphincter. In "heartburn," a patient's lower esophageal sphincter, which separates the distal esophagus from the proximal stomach, transiently relaxes its tone, inappropriately allowing food/digestive contents that have been acidified for digestion in the stomach to travel backwards into the distal esophagus. In patients with normal lower esophageal sphincter tone, i.e. without GERD, digestive contents that have passed to the stomach remain in the stomach without traveling backwards and causing an acidic, burning sensation in the esophagus.
The other answers are incorrect for the following reasons:
The epiglottis prevents food from being swallowed into the airway by closing off the airway temporarily during swallowing. It does not separate the esophagus from the stomach.
The upper esophageal sphincter is located proximally in the esophagus and opens to allow food to enter the esophagus from the pharynx. It does not separate the esophagus from the stomach.
The ileocecal valve is located distally in the small intestine, separating the ileum from the cecum of the colon. It functions to prevent colo-ileal reflux, but not gastro-esophageal reflux.
The left mainstem bronchus does not play any role in digestion of food or acid reflux, as it is part of the more distal respiratory tract.
The correct answer is the lower esophageal sphincter. In "heartburn," a patient's lower esophageal sphincter, which separates the distal esophagus from the proximal stomach, transiently relaxes its tone, inappropriately allowing food/digestive contents that have been acidified for digestion in the stomach to travel backwards into the distal esophagus. In patients with normal lower esophageal sphincter tone, i.e. without GERD, digestive contents that have passed to the stomach remain in the stomach without traveling backwards and causing an acidic, burning sensation in the esophagus.
The other answers are incorrect for the following reasons:
The epiglottis prevents food from being swallowed into the airway by closing off the airway temporarily during swallowing. It does not separate the esophagus from the stomach.
The upper esophageal sphincter is located proximally in the esophagus and opens to allow food to enter the esophagus from the pharynx. It does not separate the esophagus from the stomach.
The ileocecal valve is located distally in the small intestine, separating the ileum from the cecum of the colon. It functions to prevent colo-ileal reflux, but not gastro-esophageal reflux.
The left mainstem bronchus does not play any role in digestion of food or acid reflux, as it is part of the more distal respiratory tract.
A deficiency of which vitamin or mineral is responsible for beriberi?
A deficiency of which vitamin or mineral is responsible for beriberi?
Tap to see back →
Thiamine is a vitamin required for the metabolism of carbohydrates and amino acids. Deficiency of this vitamin results in beriberi, a disease typically of the malnourished. Symptoms of this disease manifest in many different ways such as heart failure, neuropathy, and leg swelling.
Thiamine is a vitamin required for the metabolism of carbohydrates and amino acids. Deficiency of this vitamin results in beriberi, a disease typically of the malnourished. Symptoms of this disease manifest in many different ways such as heart failure, neuropathy, and leg swelling.
Pain location: right lower quadrant, periumbilical, may radiate to the right flank
Aggravations: movement or coughing
Positive tests: right psoas sign, Rovsing test, Blumberg test, McBurney test
Which of the following abdominal disorders fits best with the given description?
Pain location: right lower quadrant, periumbilical, may radiate to the right flank
Aggravations: movement or coughing
Positive tests: right psoas sign, Rovsing test, Blumberg test, McBurney test
Which of the following abdominal disorders fits best with the given description?
Tap to see back →
Acute diverticulitis: left lower quadrant
Acute pancreatitis: epigastric, can radiate to back, poorly localized, leaning forward may help alleviate pain, laying supine aggravates. May have positive Grey Turner's sign and Cullen's sign.
Acute cholecystitis: Right Upper Quadrant, Positive Murphy Sign, may radiate into right shoulder and scapula
Peptic ulcer: epigastric, may radiate to back, wakens patient at night, possible relief with certain foods, gnawing/aching pain, heartburn
Acute diverticulitis: left lower quadrant
Acute pancreatitis: epigastric, can radiate to back, poorly localized, leaning forward may help alleviate pain, laying supine aggravates. May have positive Grey Turner's sign and Cullen's sign.
Acute cholecystitis: Right Upper Quadrant, Positive Murphy Sign, may radiate into right shoulder and scapula
Peptic ulcer: epigastric, may radiate to back, wakens patient at night, possible relief with certain foods, gnawing/aching pain, heartburn
What disease features a build up of uric acid that leads to monosodium urate crystals in tissue?
What disease features a build up of uric acid that leads to monosodium urate crystals in tissue?
Tap to see back →
Gout is a rheumatic disease that features monosodium urate crystals in tissue as the result of excess levels of uric acid in the blood stream. This can be caused by over or under excretion of uric acid. Gout can be both acute or chronic. Obesity, alcohol consumption, meat-rich diets, and poor kidney function are all risk factors. Ebola is an infectious virus that causes hemorrhagic fever. Asthma is a form of COPD (the other is chronic bronchitis), and is characterized by bronchoconstriction, causing difficulty breathing, especially when exhaling.
Gout is a rheumatic disease that features monosodium urate crystals in tissue as the result of excess levels of uric acid in the blood stream. This can be caused by over or under excretion of uric acid. Gout can be both acute or chronic. Obesity, alcohol consumption, meat-rich diets, and poor kidney function are all risk factors. Ebola is an infectious virus that causes hemorrhagic fever. Asthma is a form of COPD (the other is chronic bronchitis), and is characterized by bronchoconstriction, causing difficulty breathing, especially when exhaling.
Due to a pathological heart condition (abnormal heart activity, i.e., congestive heart failure), which of the following changes will be observed?
Due to a pathological heart condition (abnormal heart activity, i.e., congestive heart failure), which of the following changes will be observed?
Tap to see back →
Hypernatremia. A pathological heart, is a heart that is not functioning properly. The kidneys rely heavily upon the heart for their perfusion and alteration to their perfusion will cause the activation of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system (RAAS). Thus, a pathological heart, which cannot adequately perfuse the kidneys with blood, will lead to the activation of the RAAS, causing hypernatremia (from increased aldosterone levels).
Hypernatremia. A pathological heart, is a heart that is not functioning properly. The kidneys rely heavily upon the heart for their perfusion and alteration to their perfusion will cause the activation of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system (RAAS). Thus, a pathological heart, which cannot adequately perfuse the kidneys with blood, will lead to the activation of the RAAS, causing hypernatremia (from increased aldosterone levels).