Home

Tutoring

Subjects

Live Classes

Study Coach

Essay Review

On-Demand Courses

Colleges

Games

Opening subject page...

Loading your content

USMLE Step 3

USMLE Step 3 Question of the Day

Practice USMLE Step 3 with the production-style question-of-the-day selection for this public URL.

Question 1

A 65-year-old man with alcoholic cirrhosis underwent a TIPS procedure four weeks ago for refractory ascites. His ascites has resolved, but his family brings him to the clinic for worsening confusion and daytime sleepiness. On examination, he is disoriented to time and place and has prominent asterixis. He is taking lactulose twice daily. What is the most likely cause of his neurologic decline?

  1. A subdural hematoma from an unwitnessed fall.
  2. Progression of alcohol-related dementia.
  3. Development of spontaneous bacterial peritonitis.
  4. Worsening hepatic encephalopathy from portosystemic shunting.
Explanation: When you encounter a patient with cirrhosis who develops new neurological symptoms after a TIPS procedure, immediately consider hepatic encephalopathy as the primary concern. TIPS (transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunt) creates a direct connection between portal and systemic circulation, which can worsen encephalopathy by allowing ammonia and other toxins to bypass hepatic detoxification. This patient's presentation perfectly fits hepatic encephalopathy: confusion, disorientation, asterixis (flapping tremor), and daytime sleepiness occurring weeks after TIPS placement. The timeline is classic - neurological decline following the procedure that successfully treated his ascites but created increased portosystemic shunting. Option A (subdural hematoma) would typically present with focal neurological signs, headache, or evidence of trauma, none of which are described. Option B (alcohol-related dementia) progresses gradually over months to years, not acutely over four weeks. Option C (spontaneous bacterial peritonitis) is unlikely since his ascites has resolved, and SBP typically presents with abdominal pain, fever, and systemic signs of infection rather than isolated neurological symptoms. The correct answer is D because TIPS procedures commonly cause or worsen hepatic encephalopathy in 20-30% of patients by increasing the ammonia load reaching systemic circulation. Despite being on lactulose (which helps reduce ammonia absorption), his encephalopathy has progressed due to the mechanical bypass of liver detoxification. Remember: New neurological symptoms after TIPS = think hepatic encephalopathy first. This is a well-known complication that can occur despite appropriate medical management with lactulose.