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LSAT Reading

LSAT Reading Practice Test: Practice Test 3

Practice Test 3 for LSAT Reading: real questions and explanations from the Varsity Tutors practice-test pool.

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Question 1 of 25

Passage A

Some historians of technology argue that innovations are best understood as outcomes of incremental modification rather than sudden breakthroughs. On this account, the “invention” of a device typically consists of recombining existing components, refining manufacturing techniques, and adapting designs to user needs. The narrative of the lone genius can obscure the distributed labor of artisans, engineers, and firms that gradually render a technology reliable and affordable.

This incremental view also highlights the role of institutions. Patent systems, standards bodies, and procurement practices can shape which designs become dominant. For example, a government contract may favor a particular specification, thereby encouraging firms to invest in compatible tooling. Still, institutional influence is not unlimited: some designs fail despite strong sponsorship because they are difficult to maintain or do not align with user practices.

The incremental account is therefore compatible with contingency. Small differences in early adoption—such as the preferences of a large purchaser—can redirect a technology’s path, but later constraints, including network effects and sunk costs, can make reversal difficult. The historian’s task is to trace these interacting factors without presuming that the eventual winner was technologically inevitable.

Passage B

Other scholars caution that the incremental account can understate moments of conceptual discontinuity. Certain innovations, they argue, do not merely improve existing devices but reconfigure what counts as a problem and what kinds of solutions are imaginable. The transition from analog to digital representation, for instance, altered not only the efficiency of information processing but also the domains in which computation could be deployed.

This perspective does not deny that material refinements and institutional supports matter. Rather, it claims that focusing on gradual improvement can miss the epistemic shifts that make new trajectories possible. Once a conceptual framework changes, what previously seemed an impractical design may become feasible, and existing institutions may reorganize around new standards.

Thus, technological history requires attention both to continuity and to rupture. Where a change in representation, measurement, or theory occurs, the historian should not treat it as merely another incremental tweak, even if later diffusion proceeds through familiar processes of refinement and adoption.

Compared with Passage A, Passage B

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Question 1

Passage A

Some historians of technology argue that innovations are best understood as outcomes of incremental modification rather than sudden breakthroughs. On this account, the “invention” of a device typically consists of recombining existing components, refining manufacturing techniques, and adapting designs to user needs. The narrative of the lone genius can obscure the distributed labor of artisans, engineers, and firms that gradually render a technology reliable and affordable.

This incremental view also highlights the role of institutions. Patent systems, standards bodies, and procurement practices can shape which designs become dominant. For example, a government contract may favor a particular specification, thereby encouraging firms to invest in compatible tooling. Still, institutional influence is not unlimited: some designs fail despite strong sponsorship because they are difficult to maintain or do not align with user practices.

The incremental account is therefore compatible with contingency. Small differences in early adoption—such as the preferences of a large purchaser—can redirect a technology’s path, but later constraints, including network effects and sunk costs, can make reversal difficult. The historian’s task is to trace these interacting factors without presuming that the eventual winner was technologically inevitable.

Passage B

Other scholars caution that the incremental account can understate moments of conceptual discontinuity. Certain innovations, they argue, do not merely improve existing devices but reconfigure what counts as a problem and what kinds of solutions are imaginable. The transition from analog to digital representation, for instance, altered not only the efficiency of information processing but also the domains in which computation could be deployed.

This perspective does not deny that material refinements and institutional supports matter. Rather, it claims that focusing on gradual improvement can miss the epistemic shifts that make new trajectories possible. Once a conceptual framework changes, what previously seemed an impractical design may become feasible, and existing institutions may reorganize around new standards.

Thus, technological history requires attention both to continuity and to rupture. Where a change in representation, measurement, or theory occurs, the historian should not treat it as merely another incremental tweak, even if later diffusion proceeds through familiar processes of refinement and adoption.

Compared with Passage A, Passage B

  1. argues that technological development is always discontinuous and denies that institutions, standards, or user needs play any role in shaping which designs become dominant.
  2. largely accepts Passage A’s emphasis on incremental processes but adds that some innovations involve conceptual shifts that the incremental account may underemphasize. (correct answer)
  3. agrees with Passage A that the lone-genius narrative is accurate, but criticizes Passage A for failing to attribute technological success to patent protection alone.
  4. differs chiefly by offering quantitative measures of adoption rates, while reaching the same conclusion as Passage A that technological winners are inevitable once sponsored by government contracts.
  5. describes how patent systems, standards bodies, and procurement practices can influence technology trajectories, while noting that such influence is not unlimited.

Explanation: These passages examine different perspectives on technological development and innovation. Passage A advocates an incremental view, arguing that innovations typically result from gradual modification and recombination rather than sudden breakthroughs, while acknowledging that institutions and contingent factors can shape which designs become dominant. Passage B doesn't reject the incremental account but cautions that it can understate moments of conceptual discontinuity—fundamental shifts in representation or theory that reconfigure what problems and solutions are imaginable. Choice B accurately captures this relationship: Passage B largely accepts the incremental emphasis but adds that some innovations involve conceptual shifts that the incremental account may underemphasize. Both passages acknowledge the importance of institutional factors and contingency, but Passage B argues for paying additional attention to epistemic ruptures that can open new technological trajectories. The relationship is complementary rather than contradictory—Passage B seeks to supplement rather than replace the incremental perspective. A wrong answer like A mischaracterizes Passage B as claiming technological development is always discontinuous. When comparing theoretical accounts, distinguish between wholesale rejection and calls for additional nuance or emphasis.

Question 2

Proposals to deploy gene drives—engineered genetic elements that bias inheritance—have moved from speculative essays to field-ready designs, rekindling disputes about when, if ever, release is justified. Some molecular biologists, buoyed by promising lab results, urge cautious pilot releases using "daisy-chain" drives designed to fizzle out over a few generations, arguing that reversibility plus containment islands can make trials ethically tolerable. Many field ecologists remain unconvinced: food webs are knotty, they note, and even reversible drives can alter behaviors or inter-species dynamics unpredictably; they advocate a moratorium until ecosystem-level impact metrics can be credibly established. Indigenous leaders have emphasized a different axis: sovereignty and intergenerational consent. Even where local benefits are clear (for example, suppressing an invasive rodent that ravages crops), they warn that communities must be able to refuse and that decision-making processes often fail to respect knowledge systems that do not neatly map onto Western risk models. International lawyers, meanwhile, point out that cross-border spread—even if unlikely with localized designs—implicates treaties whose applicability is unsettled, complicating claims of unilateral jurisdiction. The author rejects both a headlong rush to release and an indefinite moratorium. Instead, the author proposes a governance regime for limited, reversible trials: consent processes co-designed with affected communities, a true local veto, independent ecological monitoring, publicly pre-registered endpoints, and sunset clauses that halt the trial absent affirmative renewal. The author accepts that "fully informed" consent is aspirational given uncertainties but argues that procedural safeguards can still render trials ethically defensible when potential benefits are substantial and alternatives inadequate. The author would also require transboundary notification under existing soft-law instruments without insisting on a new treaty as a precondition. The goal, the author contends, is to learn under conditions that minimize irretrievability while respecting those who bear the risks.

Which of the following statements is most consistent with the author's view but at odds with the position attributed to field ecologists in the passage?

  1. Any release of a gene drive should await a comprehensive international treaty that clearly governs transboundary effects.
  2. If eradication of the target species is not guaranteed in advance, field trials are unethical and must be postponed.
  3. Limited, reversible field trials may be justified when local communities have a genuine veto and independent monitoring is in place. (correct answer)
  4. Post-release ecological monitoring can be conducted by the project developers, provided data are shared publicly.
  5. Because true informed consent is unattainable under uncertainty, community consent should not be a decisive factor.

Explanation: The author supports narrowly tailored, reversible trials with robust local consent and monitoring, while field ecologists favor a moratorium until ecosystem-level metrics are established. The other options impose a treaty precondition, demand guarantees, weaken monitoring independence, or dismiss the relevance of consent—all positions the author rejects.

Question 3

Passage A: Discussions of the printing press often ignore the quiet fiscal scaffolding that made cheap print possible. In several German and Italian cities, councils extended tax holidays to new printers, granted remissions on guild dues, and, crucially, subsidized paper—by far the largest input cost in small formats. City records from Augsburg and Bologna show that these measures coincided with a surge in octavo pamphlets and catechisms priced within reach of artisans; contemporaneous price lists indicate that the cost of a basic primer fell relative to a day's wage over the course of two decades. Municipal officials did not merely create favorable conditions; they routinely ordered runs of broadsides for civic announcements and permitted reprints, underwriting stable demand that helped printers keep presses turning between elite commissions. Booksellers' inventories suggest that, by century's end, these low-cost items dominated stalls near markets and churches. While literacy is a broader story, the targeted subsidies that lowered per-unit costs and guaranteed volume were pivotal in widening access to reading material beyond scholarly folios.

Passage B: The press did not act on a blank slate. In regions where vernacular preaching and parish schooling already took root, literacy rose independent of book prices, and the earliest print shops often sustained themselves through aristocratic or ecclesiastical patronage rather than civic subsidy. Signature rates in rural parishes—imperfect but telling—barely budged during the first century after print, suggesting that access to texts was constrained less by price than by distribution networks and time available for schooling. Where authorities intervened in the book trade, they tended to channel funds toward imposing folios that buttressed confessional identities, not cheap primers. In short, while subsidies existed, they were neither widespread nor directed at broadening access; mass availability of inexpensive reading material came later with improvements in transport, papermaking, and retailing.

Which passage provides stronger support for the claim that government subsidies for publishers were pivotal in broadening access to reading materials in early modern Europe?

  1. Passage B, because it argues that literacy rose mainly due to religious schooling rather than market prices.
  2. Passage B, because it details printers' reliance on elite patronage to produce scholarly folios.
  3. Passage A, because it links specific subsidy programs to lower prices and wider distribution of cheap print. (correct answer)
  4. Passage A, because it claims rural signature rates rose immediately after the first presses appeared.
  5. Both passages equally, because both present identical data on subsidy effects.

Explanation: Passage A explicitly connects municipal subsidies and paper support to lower prices and expanded availability of inexpensive print, directly supporting the claim. Passage B downplays subsidy scope and focus, and A does not make the immediate rural signature-rate claim in D. E is incorrect because the passages present contrasting accounts, not identical data.

Question 4

Passage:

Some commentators propose that replacing local property taxes with broader state-level funding would make public school finance more equitable. Because property values vary widely, reliance on local taxes can produce large differences in per-pupil spending. A statewide funding formula, the argument goes, could redistribute resources and reduce disparities.

Opponents reply that state funding does not automatically yield equity. They note that formulas can be shaped by political bargaining, allowing affluent districts to retain advantages through exemptions or supplemental grants. They also argue that local taxation promotes accountability by tying spending decisions to local voters, and that reducing local control could weaken community engagement.

A conditional view holds that state-level funding can reduce inequities when formulas are transparent, enforce minimum spending levels, and limit avenues for affluent districts to circumvent redistribution. In addition, maintaining some local revenue capacity can preserve responsiveness while preventing extreme disparities. Without such design features, shifting to state funding may change the source of inequality rather than eliminate it.

Therefore, reforming school finance requires attention to institutional details, not merely to the level of government that collects revenue.

Which one of the following, if true, would most weaken the author's argument?

  1. In states that adopted transparent formulas, enforced minimum spending, and limited supplemental grants, large spending disparities persisted because affluent families moved to districts with lower student needs, reducing redistribution effects. (correct answer)
  2. Some states audit school districts’ financial reports annually to ensure compliance with accounting standards.
  3. Several analysts argue that improving teacher training would raise educational quality more than altering funding structures would.
  4. One state increased its education budget during an economic expansion while also revising its funding formula.
  5. A survey found that residents in some districts slightly preferred local control over state control of school spending.

Explanation: This question asks what would weaken the author's argument that reforming school finance requires attention to institutional details beyond just changing the level of government that collects revenue. The author argues that state-level funding can reduce inequities when formulas are transparent, enforce minimum spending, and limit affluent districts' ability to circumvent redistribution. Choice A directly undermines this conditional argument by showing that even in states with all the author's recommended design features—transparent formulas, enforced minimum spending, and limited supplemental grants—large spending disparities persisted because of demographic sorting effects. This evidence suggests that even well-designed institutional details may not overcome fundamental challenges like residential mobility patterns. Choice C, advocating for teacher training improvements, changes the subject rather than challenging the author's analysis of funding structures.

Question 5

Advocates of open science in biomedical research contend that rapid, broad sharing of data and methods will accelerate discovery and reduce waste. There is some evidence to support this optimism: preprint dissemination hastened collaboration during public health emergencies, and standardized data repositories have enabled cross-cohort analyses previously out of reach for individual labs. Yet the case for openness is often overstated, in part because it treats "openness" as a homogeneous good rather than a set of practices that entail distinct trade-offs. Clinical datasets cannot be freely distributed without robust privacy safeguards, and hastily shared code can propagate analytical errors as surely as it disseminates insight. Moreover, open platforms can inadvertently magnify existing power imbalances; well-resourced teams are better positioned to capitalize on shared materials, while smaller groups contribute disproportionately to curation and receive little credit. Proponents typically answer these objections by invoking improved governance—stricter metadata standards, contributor recognition systems, and differential privacy techniques—and these are tangible steps forward. Still, governance is not a switch one flips; it is an ongoing institutional commitment that requires funding, enforcement, and cultural change. In the absence of such commitments, open science can become a slogan that confers moral status without delivering practical rigor. Even where policies are in place, incentives matter: if hiring and funding continue to reward splashy claims over reproducible work, the mere existence of open repositories will not rectify perverse priorities. None of this is an argument to retreat to secrecy. Rather, it is a plea to temper sweeping promises with attention to the frictions of implementation and to the political economy of scientific credit. Carefully designed openness—targeted where it helps, constrained where it must—can improve reproducibility and speed cumulative gains. But equating more openness with more progress, absent careful guardrails, risks undermining the very reliability that open science promises to enhance.

The tone of the passage toward open science in biomedicine is best characterized as:

  1. Unreservedly enthusiastic, portraying openness as a near-universal solution
  2. Detached and purely descriptive, avoiding evaluative claims
  3. Guardedly skeptical, acknowledging benefits while scrutinizing overbroad claims (correct answer)
  4. Scathing, dismissing open science as a counterproductive fad
  5. Fatalistic, suggesting governance improvements are impossible

Explanation: The author notes real gains but emphasizes governance and incentive challenges, signaling guarded skepticism toward sweeping claims. The other options are either too positive, too negative, or deny the passage's evaluative stance.

Question 6

Passage A

Some city governments are experimenting with “15-minute city” planning, aiming to ensure that residents can reach daily needs—groceries, schools, parks—within a short walk or bike ride. Advocates argue that such planning can reduce car dependence and improve public health through active transport. Empirical support often comes from accessibility indices and travel surveys showing that mixed-use neighborhoods are associated with fewer vehicle miles traveled. Still, these associations can reflect self-selection: people who prefer walking may choose to live in dense areas. Moreover, adding amenities does not guarantee affordability; without housing policy, improved accessibility may coincide with rising rents.

Therefore, proponents recommend measuring outcomes using longitudinal travel data and pairing land-use reforms with investments in safe cycling infrastructure. They also mention noncentral implementation details, such as revising parking minimums and updating zoning maps.

Passage B

Critics argue that the 15-minute city concept is frequently evaluated as a mobility project when it is equally a distributional project. Accessibility gains for one group can come at the expense of another if redevelopment displaces lower-income residents to peripheral areas with worse transit and fewer services. Furthermore, focusing on average travel distances can mask unequal exposure to hazards: a short commute along unsafe corridors may not represent a meaningful improvement.

These critics propose evaluation methods that incorporate displacement and safety: tracking residential turnover, rent burdens, and traffic-injury rates, and mapping accessibility for different demographic groups. They also urge comparing 15-minute planning to policies that directly address affordability, such as social housing or rent stabilization. Under this approach, proximity is valuable, but only if it is achieved without worsening inequality or safety risks.

Which one of the following best compares the approaches taken in Passage A and Passage B?

  1. Passage A supports the concept using accessibility and travel evidence while acknowledging self-selection and recommending longitudinal measurement, whereas Passage B emphasizes distributional and safety concerns and insists on evaluating displacement and unequal risk alongside proximity. (correct answer)
  2. Passage A concludes zoning updates are the only barrier to safety, while Passage B concludes accessibility indices perfectly capture equity, and both rely chiefly on parking-minimum revisions.
  3. Passage A relies mainly on displacement tracking and injury mapping to oppose 15-minute planning, whereas Passage B relies mainly on self-selection critiques to argue that affordability never matters.
  4. Passage A treats affordability as irrelevant to land-use policy, while Passage B treats proximity planning as sufficient to eliminate all inequality and traffic injury without any other interventions.
  5. Passage A argues that rent stabilization is preferable to proximity planning and therefore recommends abandoning the 15-minute city approach entirely.

Explanation: These 15-minute city passages demonstrate contrasting approaches to evaluating proximity-based urban planning and its equity implications. Passage A supports the concept using accessibility indices and travel behavior evidence while acknowledging self-selection bias and noting that improved accessibility may coincide with rising rents without housing policy. It recommends longitudinal travel measurement and safe infrastructure investment. Passage B emphasizes distributional and safety concerns, arguing that accessibility gains can come at others' expense through displacement and that focusing on average distances can mask unequal hazard exposure. The evaluation difference is significant: Passage A emphasizes accessibility and travel evidence with self-selection acknowledgment, while Passage B foregrounds displacement tracking, demographic-specific accessibility mapping, and safety outcome measurement. Choice (C) incorrectly reverses their methodological preferences. The core contrast is accessibility-focused planning with longitudinal measurement versus distributional analysis emphasizing displacement prevention, unequal risk assessment, and affordability policy integration alongside proximity planning.

Question 7

Passage A

Some labor economists argue that raising the minimum wage can increase earnings for low-wage workers without substantial job loss, at least when increases are moderate and phased in. They cite studies finding small employment effects in certain sectors, suggesting that employers may adjust through reduced turnover, modest price increases, or productivity improvements. The policy is also defended on normative grounds: a wage floor can help ensure that full-time work meets basic living standards.

Nonetheless, many supporters qualify their claims, noting that effects may differ by region, industry, and the size of the increase. They often recommend complementary policies such as an earned income tax credit and targeted support for small businesses. The minimum wage, on this account, is one component of a broader anti-poverty strategy rather than a stand-alone solution.

Passage B

Arguments for minimum wage increases frequently rely on empirical findings that are sensitive to context and methodology. Even if average employment effects appear small, costs can be concentrated among the least experienced workers, who may be priced out of entry-level jobs. Moreover, in areas with weak demand, employers may respond by reducing hours or substituting technology, changes not always captured in headline employment figures.

Given these risks, policymakers should prioritize income supports that do not raise the price of labor directly, such as wage subsidies funded through general taxation. Such programs can boost take-home pay while preserving hiring incentives. Minimum wage laws may still have a role, but treating them as the primary lever for poverty reduction can obscure more efficient tools.

The author of Passage A and the author of Passage B would most likely disagree about

  1. whether minimum wage increases can ever be phased in over time rather than implemented immediately
  2. whether minimum wage increases are appropriately viewed as a central policy lever for poverty reduction or as a secondary tool compared with wage subsidies and tax-funded supports (correct answer)
  3. whether the effects of minimum wage increases can vary by region and industry
  4. whether Passage A denies that employers can respond to higher labor costs by adjusting hours or adopting technology
  5. whether Passage B endorses using an earned income tax credit as a complement to minimum wage policy

Explanation: This distinguishing points of view question requires identifying the core disagreement about minimum wage policy's role. Passage A presents minimum wage increases as valuable, noting they can 'increase earnings for low-wage workers without substantial job loss' while acknowledging they work best 'as one component of a broader anti-poverty strategy rather than a stand-alone solution.' The author treats minimum wages as an important policy lever. Passage B argues that 'policymakers should prioritize income supports that do not raise the price of labor directly' and warns that 'treating them as the primary lever for poverty reduction can obscure more efficient tools.' The fundamental disagreement is whether minimum wage increases should be viewed as a central policy lever for poverty reduction (A) or as a secondary tool compared to wage subsidies and tax-funded supports (B). Choice (B) captures this core difference about minimum wage policy's appropriate role in anti-poverty strategy. Track each author's view of minimum wages' importance relative to other interventions.

Question 8

Citywide bird counts increasingly rely on checklists submitted by volunteers using smartphone apps. Critics contend that such "citizen science" data are too haphazard to support reliable ecological inference: participants cluster in attractive parks, not across habitats evenly, and they differ widely in identification skill. Yet managers of wildlife agencies, pressed by budget constraints and the speed of environmental change, cannot ignore a resource that records millions of observations annually. The question is not whether citizen science will be used—it already is—but how to incorporate it responsibly.

Two concerns dominate. First, spatial bias: observers visit easily accessible sites more often, so effort is uneven. Second, observer effect: experienced birders detect and correctly identify more species than novices. Both biases can make migration timing seem earlier or later, or abundance appear higher or lower, than it truly is. The passage of time compounds the problem if, for example, app usage grows faster in certain regions than in others.

Recent studies do not deny these problems; they measure them. One line of research calibrates detection probability by pairing volunteer reports with standardized point counts conducted by trained technicians at a subset of sites. Models that include covariates for location accessibility and time-of-day, along with an index of observer experience (derived from each user's record), substantially reduce error and align trends with those from long-running professional surveys. Another approach uses "occupancy" frameworks that treat non-detections as informative and reweight observations by local effort, such as hours logged and distance traveled, to approximate uniform sampling. Under both strategies, the apparent discrepancies in migration onset shrink, and species distribution maps become less clustered around urban parks.

None of this means that citizen science, unadjusted, is ready to replace systematic sampling. The studies stress the need for ongoing validation, periodic ground-truthing, and transparency about uncertainty. But the practical upshot is not a stark choice between embracing or rejecting volunteer data. Rather, the evidence supports conditional use: when combined with explicit effort measures, experience proxies, and periodic calibration against professional benchmarks, citizen-generated observations can track large-scale patterns—particularly timing and range shifts—with informative resolution. Agencies that document their correction methods and retain professional surveys as anchors could thereby expand coverage without sacrificing credibility.

Which one of the following best describes the organization of the passage?

  1. It narrates the historical development of a research method and then predicts how that method will evolve in the future.
  2. It introduces a practical concern, outlines two principal criticisms, presents empirical strategies that address them, and ends with a qualified recommendation. (correct answer)
  3. It presents two competing theories and argues for one on purely theoretical grounds without recourse to data.
  4. It describes a single statistical technique and applies it in detail to two case studies without evaluating its limits.
  5. It states a thesis in the first paragraph and then merely illustrates it with a series of anecdotes.

Explanation: The passage raises concerns about citizen science, details two biases, describes studies that mitigate them, and concludes with a conditional endorsement. The other choices either miscast the passage as purely historical or anecdotal, or claim it offers theory without data. Choice D is too narrow and omits the evaluative conclusion and discussion of limitations.

Question 9

We often treat efficiency as the master value in allocating scarce public resources, but a minimally fair allocation system requires three procedural commitments that efficiency gains cannot displace. First, transparency: the criteria and their relative weight must be publicly knowable in advance, so that applicants can understand how decisions are made and observers can audit whether like cases are treated alike. Second, the availability of meaningful review: adverse decisions must be subject to timely, accessible mechanisms of challenge before a body with authority to correct errors. Third, mitigation for structural disadvantage: criteria must incorporate adjustments that recognize and offset persistent, non-volitional barriers that would otherwise tilt the playing field against certain groups. These commitments are conjunctive, not elective; one cannot omit review or disguise weights on the ground that an opaque or unappealable algorithm is simply faster. Emergencies complicate the picture but do not erase it. In settings of genuine, immediate triage, decisionmakers may temporarily relax ordinary review to move resources quickly, provided they implement contemporaneous safeguards against arbitrary decision and conduct retrospective audits with corrective measures for those wrongly denied. The obligation, in short, is to design for both fairness and speed, trading only temporarily and with accountability, rather than permanently sacrificing transparency or review in the name of throughput. Where decisionmakers fail on any of the three commitments absent a true emergency, the system is procedurally deficient regardless of its predictive accuracy.

Which of the following most accurately applies the principle discussed in the passage?

  1. A hospital deploys a high-accuracy allocation algorithm whose factors are proprietary and undisclosed; it offers no appeals but promises the system is efficient and supplements with a small charity fund.
  2. An arts agency publishes its scoring rubrics and allows appeals within a week, but explicitly refuses to include any adjustments for applicants facing systemic barriers because that would slow processing.
  3. A city voucher program posts its points system and weights online, includes a hardship bonus to offset structural barriers, provides an independent appeals panel with rapid timelines, and during a wildfire used temporary no-appeal triage that was followed by an audit and remedial awards. (correct answer)
  4. A water authority sets public rationing rules and offers expedited appeals for industrial users only, arguing that household appeals would be too numerous to handle.
  5. A startup incubator claims that revealing selection criteria invites manipulation, so it withholds weights and dispenses with appeals to maximize throughput.

Explanation: The correct option satisfies transparency, meaningful review, and mitigation, and limits emergency relaxation of review with retroactive auditing. The other options omit one or more required commitments without a justified emergency.

Question 10

Passage A

In debates over algorithmic hiring tools, defenders often emphasize consistency. Human interviewers, they argue, are prone to fatigue, stereotyping, and informal “fit” judgments; a model trained on job-relevant signals can reduce arbitrary variation. Several firms report that structured assessments—work-sample tests scored by software—predict subsequent performance better than unstructured interviews. Yet these reports typically come from internal audits and are rarely accompanied by transparent error analyses. Even when a tool improves average prediction, it may still systematically misclassify candidates from underrepresented groups if the training data encode unequal access to prior opportunities.

For that reason, some advocates propose a guarded rollout: limit models to narrow tasks, publish validation studies, and monitor outcomes such as hiring rates and retention. They also note practical distractors—like the cost of integrating new software with legacy HR systems—that affect adoption but are not central to the fairness question.

Passage B

Critics of algorithmic hiring contend that the key issue is not whether models are “more consistent” than humans, but whether the criteria being optimized are themselves legitimate. A model that predicts supervisor ratings may merely reproduce managerial preferences, including preferences shaped by workplace culture. Therefore, fairness cannot be inferred from predictive accuracy alone. Evaluation should begin by specifying which employment goals are normatively defensible—reducing turnover, expanding access, or improving on-the-job learning—and then by testing whether the model advances those goals without imposing undue burdens.

Methodologically, the critics favor independent audits with access to training features, subgroup error rates, and counterfactual analyses of how decisions would change under alternative criteria. They also emphasize that organizational reforms—such as clearer promotion pathways or mentorship programs—may reduce inequities more directly than tinkering with a scoring algorithm. Under this view, algorithmic tools are not ruled out, but they must be justified within a broader governance framework.

Which one of the following best compares the approaches taken in Passage A and Passage B?

  1. Passage A offers a qualified endorsement grounded in consistency and predictive evidence while urging monitoring, whereas Passage B challenges the sufficiency of accuracy-based evaluation and calls for normative goal-setting and independent auditing of criteria and subgroup impacts. (correct answer)
  2. Passage A concludes algorithmic hiring is fair, while Passage B concludes it is unfair, and both authors base their conclusions primarily on transparent public error analyses.
  3. Passage A relies chiefly on independent audits with counterfactual tests, whereas Passage B relies chiefly on firms’ internal reports about software integration costs to assess hiring tools.
  4. Passage A treats algorithmic hiring as a trivial administrative change, while Passage B treats it as a comprehensive solution that makes organizational reforms unnecessary.
  5. Passage A argues that legacy HR systems make algorithmic hiring infeasible and therefore recommends abandoning such tools altogether.

Explanation: The fundamental contrast between these algorithmic hiring passages lies in their evaluation philosophies and what constitutes adequate governance. Passage A offers qualified support based on consistency advantages over human bias, citing predictive evidence while acknowledging potential disparities in training data. It recommends careful monitoring and validation studies but operates within an accuracy-improvement framework. Passage B challenges this entire approach, arguing that technical accuracy isn't sufficient for fairness evaluation. It questions whether the underlying criteria being optimized are normatively defensible and calls for independent auditing of features, subgroup impacts, and counterfactual analyses. The passages differ not just in their conclusions but in their fundamental approach to evaluation—technical performance monitoring versus broader normative goal-setting and governance oversight. Choice (B) wrongly suggests they reach opposite conclusions about fairness when both actually propose nuanced positions, and choice (C) incorrectly attributes their primary evidence bases.

Question 11

Passage A and Passage B:

Passage A Some educators advocate “growth mindset” interventions, arguing that teaching students intelligence is malleable can improve persistence and performance. Meta-analyses suggest modest average effects, but results vary widely by context. Interventions may be more effective when paired with changes in classroom practices—such as feedback that emphasizes strategies—than when delivered as brief assemblies or online modules. Moreover, improvements in grades may depend on whether students face supportive opportunities to apply new beliefs.

Thus, researchers increasingly recommend careful targeting and realistic expectations. A defensible claim is limited in scope: growth mindset programs can help some students, particularly during transitions such as entry into high school, when coupled with instructional environments that reward effort and revision.

Passage B The popularity of growth mindset interventions reflects a broader tendency to locate educational problems in student psychology. While beliefs matter, focusing on mindset can function as a diversion from structural constraints: overcrowded classrooms, underfunded schools, and tracking systems that restrict access to advanced coursework. In such settings, exhortations to “try harder” may be experienced as blame rather than empowerment.

Accordingly, the most important educational reforms are institutional: equitable funding formulas, reduced class sizes, and transparent placement criteria. Mindset programs may be harmless supplements, but they should not be treated as central levers for closing achievement gaps.

Which one of the following best compares the approaches taken in Passage A and Passage B?

  1. Passage A concludes that mindset interventions are useless, while Passage B concludes that mindset interventions are the primary solution to educational inequality.
  2. Passage A offers a qualified, context-dependent assessment of when mindset interventions may yield modest benefits, whereas Passage B argues that emphasizing mindset risks obscuring structural causes and prioritizes institutional reforms over psychological interventions. (correct answer)
  3. Passage A bases its claims mainly on funding audits of school districts, whereas Passage B bases its claims mainly on meta-analytic effect-size estimates of mindset programs.
  4. Passage A and Passage B disagree about every aspect of schooling, including whether classroom practices affect learning and whether funding can influence outcomes.
  5. Passage A describes how intervention effects may vary depending on whether classroom feedback emphasizes strategies.

Explanation: This question compares approaches to mindset interventions in education. Passage A provides a qualified, evidence-based assessment, noting modest average effects that vary by context and recommending careful targeting during transitions like high school entry, paired with supportive instructional environments. It emphasizes realistic expectations and appropriate implementation conditions. Passage B shifts focus from psychological interventions to structural constraints, arguing that emphasizing student mindset can divert attention from institutional problems like underfunding, overcrowding, and tracking systems, potentially blaming students for systemic failures. Passage B prioritizes institutional reforms like equitable funding and reduced class sizes. Choice B accurately captures this: A offers conditional assessment of when mindset interventions may help, while B argues emphasizing mindset risks obscuring structural causes and prioritizes institutional reforms. Choice A overstates their positions. The fundamental difference is between optimizing psychological interventions versus addressing structural inequities. Always distinguish between passages that work within individual-focused frameworks versus those that emphasize systemic change.

Question 12

A public policy analyst argues that open data portals maintained by municipal governments increase government accountability primarily by enabling independent oversight. The analyst claims that when budgets, procurement contracts, and performance metrics are published in machine-readable formats, journalists, researchers, and civic groups can detect irregularities and publicize them, thereby pressuring officials to correct mismanagement. The analyst concedes that simply posting data does not guarantee use, but maintains that the marginal cost of oversight falls dramatically once data are standardized and accessible. The analyst concludes that cities that implement robust open data portals will tend to experience fewer instances of wasteful spending over time.

Some observers counter that open data initiatives often focus on low-stakes datasets while leaving the most consequential information unpublished or difficult to interpret. The analyst replies that portal quality varies and that robust portals are precisely those that prioritize high-value datasets.

Which one of the following, if true, would most weaken the author's argument?

  1. In some cities, open data portals include interactive tools that allow users to visualize trends without downloading datasets.
  2. Across a large set of cities with robust open data portals, wasteful spending did not decline because oversight groups rarely had the expertise or resources to analyze the published procurement and budget data. (correct answer)
  3. A few cities without open data portals have reduced wasteful spending after adopting stricter internal auditing procedures.
  4. Some municipal officials initially resisted open data portals because they feared that data publication would lead to misinterpretation by the public.
  5. In several cities, the number of datasets available on open data portals increased steadily over the first three years after launch.

Explanation: The policy analyst argues that open data portals increase government accountability by enabling independent oversight—when data are published in accessible formats, oversight groups can detect irregularities and pressure officials to correct mismanagement, leading to fewer instances of wasteful spending. Answer choice B directly weakens this causal chain by showing that across many cities with robust open data portals, wasteful spending did not decline because oversight groups rarely had the expertise or resources to analyze the published data. This breaks the analyst's mechanism at a crucial link: even with accessible data, the predicted oversight and resulting accountability improvements don't materialize if groups lack analytical capacity. Answer choice C might seem relevant because it mentions reduced wasteful spending, but it describes an alternative method (internal auditing) rather than addressing whether open data portals achieve their intended effect. In RC strengthen and weaken questions, focus on evidence that directly tests whether the author's proposed mechanism actually produces the predicted outcome, not on alternative approaches to the same goal.

Question 13

In the realm of property law, the doctrine of adverse possession allows a person who unlawfully occupies another's land to eventually claim legal title, provided the occupation is continuous, open, and hostile to the true owner's claim. Historically, English common law required the trespasser to hold the land under a "claim of right"—often interpreted as a subjective, good-faith belief that the trespasser actually owned the land. This good-faith requirement served as a moral safeguard, ensuring that willful land thieves could not benefit from their trespass.

However, by the late nineteenth century, American courts largely abandoned the good-faith requirement. Judges found that inquiring into a trespasser's subjective state of mind generated wildly inconsistent rulings and protracted litigation. Instead, the focus shifted to the objective actions of the trespasser: whether they used the land as a true owner would. This shift had the effect of streamlining property disputes and clearing clouded titles, though critics argued it inadvertently incentivized deliberate land encroachment.

According to critics described in the passage, an effect of focusing on objective actions was:

  1. the re-establishment of historical moral safeguards in property law.
  2. an increase in the number of clouded titles in the American legal system.
  3. a decrease in the continuous and open use of unlawfully occupied land.
  4. an unintentional encouragement of willful land theft. (correct answer)
  5. the generation of wildly inconsistent judicial rulings.

Explanation: The passage states critics argued the shift 'inadvertently incentivized deliberate land encroachment,' making 'willful land theft' in (D) an accurate paraphrase. (B) is a reversal: the passage explicitly says the shift helped clear clouded titles, meaning clouded titles decreased rather than increased. (E) names the problem the good-faith requirement itself caused — inconsistent rulings — not an effect of shifting to objective standards.

Question 14

Passage A

Some political theorists defend compulsory voting as a remedy for unequal participation. When turnout is voluntary, citizens with higher income and education vote at higher rates, and elected officials may respond disproportionately to their preferences. Compulsory voting, by increasing participation among underrepresented groups, is said to make outcomes more representative and to strengthen democratic legitimacy.

Opponents argue that compulsion infringes individual liberty, particularly when voting is treated as expressive rather than merely instrumental. They also contend that forcing participation may increase the number of uninformed votes, potentially diluting the quality of collective decision making. Proponents reply that the duty to vote is analogous to jury service: a modest burden justified by the benefits of a functioning democracy.

A qualified defense of compulsory voting therefore depends on institutional context. If voting is made easy, penalties are minimal, and citizens can submit a blank ballot, the policy may increase participation without excessive coercion. But where enforcement is harsh or where structural barriers persist, compulsion may exacerbate distrust and fail to address the underlying reasons for disengagement.

Passage B

Empirical research on compulsory voting suggests that its effects extend beyond turnout. In some countries, parties adjust their platforms when they can no longer rely on mobilizing only their most committed supporters. Campaigns may shift away from turnout operations and toward persuasion, and policies may become more attentive to broad public goods. However, these patterns are not uniform; in contexts with weak party competition, compulsory voting can coexist with clientelism and may not produce substantive responsiveness.

This research also complicates the concern about uninformed voting. While some compelled voters cast random ballots, others respond by acquiring minimal information, and parties may provide clearer cues when they anticipate a larger electorate. Still, compulsory voting does not eliminate participation gaps entirely, as differences in political influence can persist through lobbying and unequal access to media.

Overall, the evidence supports neither unqualified enthusiasm nor categorical rejection. The policy’s consequences depend on enforcement design and on the surrounding political institutions that translate votes into governance.

Passage B relates to Passage A primarily by

  1. providing empirical considerations that generally align with Passage A’s context-dependent assessment by examining how compulsory voting affects party behavior and voter information under different institutions. (correct answer)
  2. disagreeing with Passage A by claiming that compulsory voting always violates liberty and therefore always reduces legitimacy regardless of enforcement design.
  3. agreeing with Passage A that compulsory voting is always justified and adding that enforcement should be harsh to maximize turnout and policy responsiveness.
  4. differing mainly in method by offering moral arguments rather than evidence, while reaching the same conclusion as Passage A that compulsory voting should be adopted in every democracy.
  5. arguing that compulsory voting is justified because the duty to vote is analogous to jury service and because voluntary turnout reflects unequal participation.

Explanation: These passages examine compulsory voting from different analytical perspectives. Passage A provides theoretical analysis focusing on democratic legitimacy arguments—addressing concerns about liberty and informed participation while proposing that effectiveness depends on institutional context and implementation design. Passage B offers empirical evidence about compulsory voting's actual effects on party behavior, voter information, and policy responsiveness, confirming that consequences depend on enforcement design and surrounding political institutions. Choice A correctly identifies that Passage B provides empirical considerations that generally align with Passage A's context-dependent assessment. Both passages reach similar conclusions about the importance of institutional context, but they approach the question differently—Passage A through normative argument, Passage B through evidence. The empirical findings neither fully vindicate nor completely undermine the theoretical case but support the conditional, context-sensitive approach. A wrong answer like C mischaracterizes both passages' positions on enforcement. When comparing theoretical and empirical approaches to policy questions, look for whether the evidence supports, complicates, or contradicts the theoretical predictions.

Question 15

Passage A

In archaeology, some researchers argue that the most reliable reconstructions of past societies come from material remains rather than from later written accounts. Artifacts, settlement patterns, and environmental data can reveal everyday practices that elites did not record and can correct biases in historical narratives. For example, evidence of diverse diets or trade networks may contradict texts that portray a society as economically isolated.

However, material evidence is often fragmentary, and interpretation can be uncertain. A concentration of certain pottery types might indicate trade, migration, or imitation, and distinguishing among these possibilities can require assumptions that are not directly observable. Moreover, written sources, though biased, can provide chronological anchors and descriptions of institutions that leave little material trace.

Consequently, many archaeologists advocate triangulation. By comparing texts, artifacts, and scientific analyses such as isotope studies, researchers can test hypotheses and reduce reliance on any single source. Still, triangulation does not guarantee agreement; it can instead reveal that different kinds of evidence answer different questions about the past.

Passage B

Some historians caution that the call to privilege material evidence can itself reflect a mistaken hierarchy. Written sources are not merely repositories of facts; they are cultural artifacts that encode categories, metaphors, and political aims. Reading them critically can illuminate how societies understood themselves, which may be as important as reconstructing what happened. A text that exaggerates a ruler’s power, for instance, can reveal the ideals of authority that the ruler sought to project.

This approach does not deny the value of archaeology. Rather, it argues that conflicts between texts and material remains should not always be resolved by declaring one “more reliable.” Discrepancies can be historically informative: they may indicate contested memories, propaganda, or differences between official ideology and local practice.

Thus, the most productive synthesis treats both kinds of evidence as partial and situated. The goal is not to eliminate bias but to interpret how different evidentiary forms, each shaped by its own production conditions, can jointly illuminate past social worlds.

Passage B relates to Passage A primarily by

  1. disagreeing with Passage A by arguing that material remains are useless for reconstructing everyday practices and that only written sources can provide reliable knowledge of the past.
  2. agreeing with Passage A that material evidence should always override texts and adding that triangulation is unnecessary once isotope studies are available.
  3. qualifying Passage A’s implied evidentiary hierarchy by emphasizing that written sources are themselves artifacts and that discrepancies between texts and material evidence can be informative rather than errors to be resolved. (correct answer)
  4. differing mainly in method by presenting excavation reports, while reaching the same conclusion as Passage A that texts provide little more than chronological anchors.
  5. explaining that triangulation compares texts, artifacts, and scientific analyses to test hypotheses, though it may reveal that different evidence answers different questions.

Explanation: These passages examine the relationship between textual and material evidence in reconstructing the past. Passage A advocates for triangulation that treats material evidence as potentially more reliable for revealing everyday practices and correcting elite biases, while acknowledging interpretive uncertainties and the value of written sources for chronological anchors. Passage B cautions against privileging material evidence by treating written sources as cultural artifacts that encode important information about how societies understood themselves, arguing that discrepancies between evidence types can be historically informative rather than problems to resolve. Choice C correctly identifies that Passage B qualifies Passage A's implied evidentiary hierarchy by emphasizing that written sources are themselves artifacts and that discrepancies can be informative. While Passage A leans toward treating material evidence as more objective, Passage B argues for treating both kinds of evidence as partial and situated, requiring critical interpretation. Both acknowledge the value of multiple evidence types but differ on how to handle conflicts between them. A wrong answer like A mischaracterizes both passages' positions on evidence reliability. When comparing methodological approaches, focus on underlying assumptions about objectivity and bias rather than just stated preferences for evidence types.

Question 16

In recent years, some scholars have urged legislatures to adopt “dynamic” statutory interpretation, arguing that courts should read older statutes in light of contemporary social conditions. Others respond that this approach risks transferring lawmaking power from elected bodies to judges. The dispute often turns on what counts as fidelity: fidelity to the enacting legislature’s expected applications, or fidelity to the statute’s general aims as those aims confront new circumstances.

Proponents of dynamic interpretation contend that many statutes are drafted at a high level of generality precisely because lawmakers anticipate change. A provision prohibiting “unreasonable” conduct, for instance, may be designed to incorporate evolving standards rather than to freeze a single historical meaning. On this view, courts should treat some statutory terms as deliberately open-textured, updating their application as new technologies and practices emerge. Yet dynamic interpreters typically concede that not every statute invites updating; highly specific provisions, or those enacted as part of a detailed compromise, may warrant closer adherence to historically expected applications.

Critics of dynamic interpretation emphasize the costs of uncertainty. If regulated parties cannot predict how a court will “update” a statute, they may overcomply or underinvest in beneficial activity. Critics also argue that legislatures, not courts, possess the institutional tools to gather facts and weigh competing interests. They point out that when lawmakers want a statute to evolve, they can create administrative agencies or include explicit revision mechanisms. The critics’ strongest claim is not that courts should never consider changed circumstances, but that courts should do so cautiously and with attention to whether the statutory text plausibly signals openness to change.

To illustrate the institutional concern, critics often invoke the history of early antitrust statutes. Those statutes used broad language—such as prohibitions on “restraints of trade”—and courts later developed extensive doctrines to implement them. Some commentators treat this as a success, showing how judicial elaboration can make general terms workable. Others treat it as a warning, noting that the resulting doctrines sometimes reflected judicial economic assumptions more than legislative choices. The debate, therefore, is less about whether interpretation involves judgment than about how to discipline that judgment without denying the need to apply old words to new facts.

The author mentions the history of early antitrust statutes primarily in order to

  1. provide an extended account of how antitrust law developed from its enactment to the present day
  2. illustrate how broad statutory language can invite judicial elaboration that is viewed by some as adaptive and by others as institutionally risky (correct answer)
  3. show that dynamic interpretation is always illegitimate because it allows courts to create law without democratic authorization
  4. state that early antitrust statutes used broad phrases such as prohibitions on “restraints of trade”
  5. make the reader skeptical of all judicial reasoning by emphasizing that judges inevitably impose personal assumptions

Explanation: In this role of a detail question, we need to understand why the author brings up antitrust law history in the fourth paragraph. The author isn't just mentioning that antitrust statutes used broad language—that's what the detail says, but not why it's included. The author uses this example to illustrate the "institutional concern" that critics have about dynamic interpretation: when courts interpret broad statutory language, they might create extensive doctrines that reflect judicial assumptions rather than legislative intent. This perfectly demonstrates how broad language can be seen as either adaptive (allowing judicial elaboration to make general terms workable) or institutionally risky (allowing judges to impose their own economic theories). Choice B captures this dual perspective and the illustrative function of the example. Choice D merely restates the detail without explaining its purpose, while choices A, C, and E either overstate the example's scope or mischaracterize the author's neutral presentation. Remember: always ask why the author includes a detail, not just what the detail says.

Question 17

Managers confronting coral reef decline often divide into camps: some prioritize reducing local stressors—limiting sediment runoff, curbing fishing pressure, improving wastewater treatment—on the theory that healthier reefs are more resilient to warming seas. Others argue for bolder interventions, such as translocating heat-tolerant corals from naturally warm reefs to vulnerable ones, or deploying structures to shade and cool especially sensitive patches during heat waves. A newer suite of practices, grouped under the label "assisted evolution," attempts to boost resilience by guiding, rather than replacing, natural processes. Researchers selectively breed corals that have survived past bleaching events, expose juvenile corals to elevated temperatures in controlled settings to encourage acclimation, and then outplant the hardier offspring. Proponents claim that these efforts, linked to genomic screening that identifies promising lineages, can amplify traits without introducing foreign species. Yet the more controlled the intervention, the greater the risk of oversimplifying the ecological web; corals' symbioses with algae, microbes, and local conditions may not transfer cleanly. Moreover, scaling any intervention from pilot plots to entire reef systems faces logistical and ethical hurdles, particularly where reefs provide food and income to coastal communities with limited resources. The author of one recent review cautions that success should be measured not by short-term survival of outplants but by their integration into reef dynamics over multiple reproductive cycles. In that spirit, these methods (line 31) are presented not as panaceas but as tools to be deployed alongside water-quality improvements and fisheries management, with careful monitoring to avoid unintended consequences. Focusing only on high-tech fixes can divert attention from governance reforms, but dismissing them outright ignores the accelerating pace of change that threatens to outstrip slow-moving policy shifts.

The phrase "these methods" (line 31) most nearly refers to which of the following?

  1. Reducing local stressors such as runoff and overfishing
  2. Translocating resilient corals and shading reefs during heat waves
  3. Assisted-evolution techniques like selective breeding and thermal preconditioning of corals (correct answer)
  4. Genomic monitoring of reefs to detect bleaching events in real time
  5. Culling invasive species that prey on juvenile corals

Explanation: Immediately prior to the phrase, the passage details assisted-evolution practices (selective breeding and acclimation) and then labels "these methods" as tools. The other choices describe different management strategies or monitoring, not the specific suite just summarized.

Question 18

Passage A

In intellectual property policy, some analysts defend strong patent protections for pharmaceuticals, arguing that exclusivity is necessary to recoup research and development costs. They contend that without the prospect of monopoly pricing for a limited period, firms would underinvest in risky drug discovery. Patents, on this view, also facilitate disclosure: inventors must publicly describe their inventions, allowing others to build upon the knowledge after the patent expires. Some proponents note that alternative mechanisms, such as prizes, have rarely been implemented at scale.

Yet even supporters of patents often recognize that the system can be refined. Practices like “evergreening,” in which minor modifications extend exclusivity, can delay generic competition. Accordingly, reform-minded defenders propose tightening standards for patentability, improving scrutiny of secondary patents, and using targeted compulsory licensing in emergencies. Strong protection is defended, but not as an unqualified good.

Passage B

Pharmaceutical patents are often justified as necessary for innovation, but they can also distort research priorities. Firms may focus on profitable chronic conditions rather than on diseases that primarily affect low-income populations. Moreover, the link between patent length and socially valuable innovation is not straightforward; public funding and basic research institutions contribute substantially to drug discovery.

A more balanced innovation policy would rely less on monopoly pricing and more on public or cooperative financing: expanding direct grants, funding clinical trials for neglected diseases, and using prize funds tied to health impact. Patents might still exist, but they should be weaker and complemented by mechanisms that decouple innovation incentives from high consumer prices. The goal is to encourage discovery while improving access.

The author of Passage A and the author of Passage B would most likely disagree about

  1. whether evergreening practices can delay generic competition and warrant policy attention
  2. whether strong patent exclusivity is generally necessary to sustain pharmaceutical innovation or whether incentives should be shifted toward public financing that reduces reliance on monopoly pricing (correct answer)
  3. whether public funding and basic research institutions contribute to drug discovery
  4. whether Passage A endorses prizes as the primary existing mechanism for funding drug development at scale
  5. whether Passage B argues that patents should be abolished immediately in all countries regardless of transition costs

Explanation: This distinguishing points of view question asks where the authors disagree about pharmaceutical patent policy's appropriate foundation. Passage A defends 'strong patent protections for pharmaceuticals, arguing that exclusivity is necessary to recoup research and development costs' and contends that 'without the prospect of monopoly pricing for a limited period, firms would underinvest in risky drug discovery.' The author treats strong patent exclusivity as generally necessary for innovation. Passage B argues that 'a more balanced innovation policy would rely less on monopoly pricing and more on public or cooperative financing: expanding direct grants, funding clinical trials for neglected diseases, and using prize funds tied to health impact.' The fundamental disagreement is whether strong patent exclusivity is generally necessary to sustain pharmaceutical innovation (A) or whether incentives should be shifted toward public financing that reduces reliance on monopoly pricing (B). Choice (B) captures this core difference about the appropriate foundation for innovation policy in pharmaceuticals. Track each author's view of what mechanisms should primarily drive drug development.

Question 19

Debates over returning archival materials to originating communities often split along an unhelpful binary: unrestricted open access for all versus physical repatriation that removes items from centralized repositories. A recent review of policies in state-funded archives across the United States suggests a middle path better suits a distinct subset of collections: community-authored oral histories recorded before 1970. These recordings were typically produced on fragile analog media by local interviewers, with consent practices that emphasized community stewardship but did not anticipate global digital circulation. Many such materials now sit in climate-controlled vaults with minimal description, rarely requested and often inaudible without specialized playback.

Archives that adopted "return-and-copy" agreements for this subset—depositing preservation-grade digital copies in the archive while transferring high-resolution copies and curatorial authority to the originating community—reported two measurable outcomes. First, use increased: community institutions curated thematic exhibits and school programs, drawing in listeners who had never set foot in state archives. Second, ethical tensions decreased: because decisions about redaction, access tiers, and contextual annotation were made by community boards, interviewee concerns were handled locally and iteratively. By contrast, open-access mandates sometimes chilled participation when communities learned that sensitive reminiscences would be globally searchable, while full physical repatriation occasionally resulted in loss of preservation capacity and regional access.

This review does not claim that return-and-copy is best for all formats or settings. Born-digital oral histories, collections produced under contemporary consent protocols, or materials held by private foundations raise distinct logistical and ethical questions. Nor does the review resolve ownership disputes or speak to audio recorded after the advent of portable cassettes broadened production practices. Its conclusion is narrower: for pre-1970, community-authored oral histories housed in state-funded U.S. archives, return-and-copy policies better balance preservation, access, and community control than either pure open-access or physical repatriation alone.

Which of the following most accurately describes the scope of the author's claim?

  1. It is confined to pre-1970, community-authored oral histories held in state-funded U.S. archives, concluding that return-and-copy policies better balance preservation, access, and community control than the two main alternatives. (correct answer)
  2. It asserts that return-and-copy agreements are the ideal solution for all archival materials, regardless of format, era, or funding source.
  3. It argues only that physical repatriation is always inferior to open access for collections produced under any consent practices.
  4. It applies specifically to born-digital oral histories and privately funded repositories where open-access is technologically straightforward.
  5. It concludes that ownership disputes are resolved by return-and-copy policies for most collections created after 1970.

Explanation: Choice A tracks the precise limits: pre-1970, community-authored oral histories in state-funded U.S. archives and a comparative claim among three policy models. The other options overgeneralize to all materials (B), misstate the comparative conclusion (C), shift to contexts expressly excluded (D), or add a claim about resolving ownership and post-1970 materials not made (E).

Question 20

Debate over how best to manage declining coastal fisheries often centers on two approaches: total allowable catch limits enforced through individual or seasonal quotas, and marine reserves that prohibit extraction in designated zones. Quota systems can deliver immediate economic stability to fishers by creating predictable seasons and allocable shares, and in the short term they have been associated with steadier incomes in regions where stocks are not yet severely depleted. But quota programs require substantial, continuous monitoring to prevent underreporting and illegal bycatch, and the costs of onboard observers, satellite tracking, dockside inspections, and auditing often fall on a mix of government agencies and the industry itself.

By contrast, no-take reserves tend to produce slower initial income gains for fishers, since they shift effort away from closed areas and can reduce catches in the near term. Yet reserve networks, when enforced effectively, have been shown to facilitate biomass recovery and spillover into adjacent fishing grounds; in some cases, these ecological benefits translate into higher catches and incomes after several years. Enforcement costs for reserves are not negligible, but they are often concentrated at boundaries and can be partially mitigated when local communities participate in designing boundaries they regard as legitimate, which increases voluntary compliance.

Policymakers rarely face ideal conditions. In many coastal jurisdictions, budgets for monitoring and enforcement are either flat or declining, while governance is fragmented among municipal, provincial, and national authorities. Under such fragmentation, both quota and reserve regimes can suffer from leakage as noncompliant actors move across administrative lines. Still, case studies indicate that when communities are given a role in setting reserve boundaries and are promised a share of tourism or research revenues, compliance improves and patrol costs can be reduced. Quota systems have fewer analogous mechanisms to lower ongoing monitoring costs, because their integrity depends on continuous verification of catches across many vessels and landing sites.

Advocates for each approach sometimes overstate the certainty of their preferred outcomes. Ecological recovery in reserves can be blunted by climate shifts and pollution, and quotas can succeed where highly professionalized fleets and robust agency funding make monitoring feasible. Nevertheless, the trade-off between near-term income stability and the administrative burden of monitoring remains central to policy design.

Which one of the following can be properly inferred from the passage?

  1. No-take reserves consistently outperform quota systems in accelerating fish biomass recovery regardless of context.
  2. In jurisdictions with limited funds for monitoring and enforcement, the short‑term economic advantage of quota systems over reserves is reduced. (correct answer)
  3. Once communities participate in reserve design, noncompliance ceases to be a concern for managers.
  4. Leakage across administrative boundaries is eliminated by establishing a network of reserves.
  5. Policymakers typically prioritize ecological outcomes over economic ones when choosing between quotas and reserves.

Explanation: Because quotas require substantial ongoing monitoring while reserves can lower patrol costs via enhanced voluntary compliance, scarce monitoring budgets diminish quotas' short-term advantage. The other choices assert universal success, elimination of noncompliance, or policymaker priorities that the passage does not establish.

Question 21

Calls to reintroduce cultural burning—low-intensity fire led by Indigenous practitioners—often elicit sweeping promises about ending megafires. The historical record and recent pilot programs counsel a narrower, more pragmatic claim. In Mediterranean-climate landscapes, where wet winters spur flushes of fine fuels and dry summers desiccate them, mosaic burns conducted at intervals set by local knowledge reduce ladder fuels, open understory structure, and break up the continuity of surface fuels. This pattern has been documented in parts of southeastern Australia and coastal California, where Indigenous fire stewardship fits the phenology of shrubs and grasses and the social rhythms of communities who can return repeatedly to specific patches.

These practices are not ad hoc bonfires. They are timed to wind, humidity, and fuel moisture; organized to leave refugia; and carried out by trained cultural burn bosses who hold responsibility for crew safety and for the patchwork left behind. Under legal frameworks that recognize and permit such work—frameworks still uneven across jurisdictions—cultural burning does not eliminate the possibility of extreme, wind-driven fires. Rather, it alters the background condition of the landscape in ways that, over years, tend to reduce fire severity and improve opportunities for suppression to succeed when large fires arrive.

Outside Mediterranean-type ecosystems, the fit is less clear. Boreal forests driven by crown-fire regimes, or arid shrublands where recovery is slow and invasive grasses change fuel structures, may demand different tools and tempos. Nor does cultural burning substitute for every mechanical treatment or modern firefighting practice; it complements them when scaled and sustained within compatible ecological and legal settings. The claim advanced here is bounded: in Mediterranean-climate regions of Australia and California, cultural burning led by trained Indigenous practitioners and supported by appropriate regulation can, over time, reduce the severity of wildfires by changing fuel patterns at the landscape scale.

Which choice best states the scope of the author's claim?

  1. It asserts that cultural burning is effective across all global forest types and can end megafires everywhere.
  2. It maintains that cultural burning is useful only for protecting individual homesteads, not for landscape-scale effects.
  3. It claims that cultural burning eliminates extreme fires in Australia and California when practiced regularly.
  4. It limits its claim to Mediterranean-climate landscapes in parts of Australia and California, conducted by trained Indigenous practitioners under appropriate regulation, as a means to lessen fire severity over time. (correct answer)
  5. It concludes that mechanical thinning and other Western fuel treatments are unnecessary wherever cultural burning is practiced.

Explanation: The author confines the claim to Mediterranean-climate regions in Australia and California, to trained Indigenous leadership under legal frameworks, and to reducing severity over time rather than eliminating fires. The passage explicitly rejects universal or homestead-only claims. It also rejects the notion that cultural burning makes other treatments unnecessary.

Question 22

Passage A and Passage B:

Passage A Some museum curators argue that returning cultural artifacts to their places of origin can correct historical injustices and improve scholarship by reconnecting objects with local knowledge. Yet they caution that “origin” is not always straightforward: borders have shifted, and communities may have competing claims. Moreover, museums often provide conservation resources that are scarce elsewhere, and abrupt repatriation without capacity building can risk damage.

A pragmatic approach recommends negotiated returns, long-term loans, and shared curatorial partnerships, with attention to provenance research. The claim is qualified: repatriation is most justified when acquisition involved coercion and when agreements ensure both access and preservation.

Passage B Repatriation debates often become exercises in case-by-case provenance analysis, as if the moral question turns solely on documentation. But focusing on paperwork can obscure the structural asymmetry that allowed artifacts to be removed in the first place. Even where records are incomplete, the broader context of colonial extraction may render possession ethically suspect.

Therefore, the primary reform should be institutional: shifting default presumptions toward return, creating funding streams controlled by source communities, and redefining museums’ mission away from universal ownership. Conservation concerns are real, but they should not function as a veto wielded by current holders.

Which one of the following best compares the approaches taken in Passage A and Passage B?

  1. Passage A concludes that repatriation should never occur, whereas Passage B concludes that repatriation should always occur immediately regardless of circumstances.
  2. Passage A emphasizes negotiated, conditional repatriation attentive to provenance complexity and preservation capacity, whereas Passage B emphasizes structural injustice and argues for shifting institutional presumptions toward return rather than relying mainly on case-by-case documentation. (correct answer)
  3. Passage A relies primarily on chemical conservation studies, whereas Passage B relies primarily on detailed border maps to identify modern nation-states.
  4. Passage A and Passage B disagree about everything, including whether colonial extraction ever occurred and whether museums can preserve artifacts at all.
  5. Passage A notes that borders have shifted and that communities may have competing claims to an artifact’s origin.

Explanation: This question compares approaches to cultural artifact repatriation. Passage A emphasizes negotiated, case-by-case repatriation that considers provenance complexity (shifting borders, competing claims) and practical concerns about conservation capacity, recommending partnerships and shared arrangements when acquisition involved coercion and preservation can be ensured. Passage B argues that focusing on individual provenance analysis misses the structural asymmetry of colonial extraction, and that even incomplete documentation should trigger presumptions toward return rather than requiring communities to prove their claims against current holders who benefited from historical injustice. Choice B accurately captures this: A emphasizes negotiated conditional repatriation attentive to complexity and capacity, while B emphasizes structural injustice and shifting institutional presumptions toward return rather than case-by-case documentation. Choice A mischaracterizes their evidence bases. The core difference is between pragmatic case-by-case evaluation versus systemic presumption shifts based on historical injustice. Look for whether passages focus on technical implementation or structural power corrections.

Question 23

Two dominant stories have hardened around the late style of the exiled poet: one casts the sparse, declarative poems of the final years as the culmination of a lifelong asceticism; the other reads them as a capitulation to state pressure, a deflation of the earlier baroque register into thin compliance. Neither story quite fits the material record. The notebooks and letters from the mid-1920s, as the poet prepared to leave, crackle with formal experiments that never reached print. And the published poems of the exile years—three slim collections between 1927 and 1931—show a disciplined austerity that is too consistent to be merely exhausted, yet too strategically fissured to be simple obedience.

What changes is not only diction but address: the poems turn outward, framing themselves as public speech, careful about what can be said and what must be suggested. Certain images recur—salt, glass, a shuttered window—with a steadiness that suggests a coded system legible to those who knew the earlier work. When censors tightened their grip after a series of arrests in 1928, the poems narrowed further, titles shortened, subordinate clauses fell away. But the restraint is not void; it hums, and it hums at moments that correlate with known acts of erasure in the censor's office. This is why the late austerity should be read less as renunciation than as posture: a way to move in public under watch, to keep a conversation going with readers who had learned how to listen.

The claim here is deliberately narrow. It does not pretend to explain the poet's entire trajectory, nor does it say anything about other modernists under authoritarian regimes. It concerns only the three published collections written in exile from 1927 to 1931 and argues that their severity had a strategic, public-facing function in the specific context of censorship. The private drafts and juvenilia pull in other directions, but they are beside the point when we ask what the late poems were made to do in the world they entered.

Which of the following most accurately describes the scope of the author's claim about the poet's late style?

  1. It covers the poet's entire oeuvre, asserting that all stylistic choices across the career were tactical responses to censorship.
  2. It is limited to the three published collections written in exile between 1927 and 1931 and treats their austerity as a strategic public posture under censorship, without generalizing to other periods or writers. (correct answer)
  3. It focuses on private notebooks and drafts composed before exile to argue that the poet had already renounced ornament long before censorship pressures.
  4. It generalizes to all modernist poets working under authoritarian regimes, claiming their late styles are strategic rather than sincere.
  5. It concludes that the poet's austere style reflects a genuine spiritual renunciation that pervades the entire career.

Explanation: The author confines the claim to three exile-era published collections and frames austerity there as a strategic public response to censorship, explicitly rejecting broader generalizations. The passage does not focus on pre-exile notebooks as the basis of the claim. Nor does it extend the argument to the poet's whole career or to other writers.

Question 24

City-level evaluations of an employment program have often used a staggered-adoption difference-in-differences design: early adopters serve as treated units while later adopters act as controls until their turn arrives. But two empirical features compromise this approach. First, early adopters exhibited upward trends in employment even before adoption, as documented by administrative payroll data, making them poor counterfactuals for late adopters. Second, early adopters seeded program know-how among neighboring jurisdictions, which then adjusted their own services in anticipation—spillovers that contaminate the supposed controls. These features, combined with heterogeneous capacity across cities, bias naive estimates upward.

The bias is not merely theoretical. Jurisdictions with high administrative capacity adopted earlier and experienced modest gains that began before formal rollouts. Later adopters, often with weaker capacity, did not show pre-adoption gains and struggled to implement at scale. When the naive estimator pools cohorts, it ascribes to "the program" both the momentum of early adopters and the indirect benefits accruing to their neighbors. An alternative cohort-specific synthetic control method that aligns pre-adoption trajectories and downweights contaminated controls yields smaller average effects concentrated in the early, high-capacity cohort; for late-adopting, low-capacity cities, estimated effects are near zero once pretrends and spillovers are addressed.

These findings matter for policy extrapolation. Officials comparing the naive average effect to budgeted expectations risk overpromising in places unlike the early adopters. The revised estimates suggest that what looks like a generalized program success is largely a composition effect: cities most able to implement quickly also looked better beforehand and conferred some of that advantage outward. For cities coming later to the program—precisely those with fewer resources—there is little evidence of meaningful impact without complementary investments that strengthen capacity and reduce dependency on neighbors' spillovers.

The methodological lesson is straightforward: when adoption timing correlates with pre-existing trends and with an ability to influence would-be controls, naive difference-in-differences overstates average treatment effects and is least informative about the municipalities most in need of accurate forecasts.

Which one of the following can be properly inferred from the passage?

  1. The program had no effect in any jurisdiction.
  2. Spillovers from early adopters unambiguously reduced employment in neighboring cities.
  3. The alternative estimator will always produce smaller effects than any other method.
  4. Early-adopting cities experienced no employment gains before adoption.
  5. Using the naive average effect to forecast outcomes in late-adopting, low-capacity cities would overstate the program's likely impact for those cities. (correct answer)

Explanation: The passage states that naive estimates are biased upward by pretrends and spillovers and that late-adopting, low-capacity cities show near-zero effects when those are addressed, so applying the naive average to them would overstate impact. The other choices claim no effects, negative spillovers, universal estimator behavior, or no pre-adoption gains—each contradicted or unsupported.

Question 25

Debates over open-access (OA) publishing are too often framed as a binary: either the subscription model, with its paywalls and bundled licenses, or article processing charges (APCs) that shift costs from readers to authors. Subscription defenders emphasize the infrastructure such revenues support—robust peer review, editorial development, and archiving—and warn that abandoning subscriptions without a replacement impoverishes quality. OA maximalists reply that knowledge produced with public funds should be publicly available; APCs, they argue, are a tolerable bridge to a world in which preprints and post-publication review supplant legacy gatekeeping. Funder mandates have accelerated the shift, requiring grantees to make outputs openly available. The author accepts the OA imperative but challenges both poles. First, the author argues APC-only models reproduce inequality: well-funded labs can pay, while independent scholars and institutions in the Global South are priced out or relegated to waivers that mark them as supplicants. Second, the author rejects the maximalist suggestion that prestige and curation are merely elitist residue; peer review and editorial labor add value by improving clarity, correcting errors, and contextualizing results. Nor does the author defend the status quo: subscriptions that wall off literature from community colleges, small nonprofits, and practitioners are inconsistent with the social purpose of research. Instead, the author favors "diamond OA" financed through consortia of libraries, funders, and governments, with transparent budgets and governance that preserve editorial labor without charging authors. Under such a model, editors are paid, peer review is coordinated, and archives are maintained; readers and authors pay nothing at the point of use. The author further proposes that funder mandates should be paired with multi-year, pooled commitments that stabilize journals during the transition away from subscriptions, and that evaluative cultures should stop over-relying on brand signals while still recognizing the importance of organized vetting. In short, openness is non-negotiable, but so is the infrastructure that makes scholarship reliable and accessible to all producers and consumers of knowledge.

The passage indicates that the author's position differs from that of the 'OA maximalists' chiefly in that the author

  1. insists that subscriptions remain the primary revenue stream for scholarly publishing.
  2. denies that APC-funded models risk exacerbating inequities among authors.
  3. regards peer review and editorial work as dispensable remnants of elitist gatekeeping.
  4. opposes funder mandates that require open dissemination of research outputs.
  5. endorses open access but insists on funding models that preserve professional editorial labor without imposing APC barriers. (correct answer)

Explanation: The author supports OA yet rejects APC-only approaches and maintains the necessity of funded editorial infrastructure via consortial 'diamond OA'. The other options attribute defenses of subscriptions, dismissal of APC inequity, rejection of peer review, or opposition to mandates that the author explicitly disavows.